I have been experiencing some back pain for the past few months and finally went to the Dr. and got some x-rays done. Since it was a Friday I didn't get an explanation of the information that was sent to me by the radiologist. If anyone could let me know what this means please let me know, thanks. I am wondering if physical therapy is the way to go as treatment.
There is mild dextroscoliosis centered at the thoracolumbar spine. No vertebral
body anomalies identified. No compression deformity seen. There is spina bifida
occulta at the L5 level.
The oblique projections of the lumbar spine are suboptimal, in part may be due
to mild scoliotic curvature. The pars articularis are not delineated properly
on the oblique images. Bilateral pars defects suggested. There is resultant
mild grade 1 L5 on S1 anterolisthesis.
Mild dextroscoliosis. No vertebral body anomalies noted.
Suspected bilateral L5 pars defects with resultant grade 1 L5 on S1
I don't think anyone here is going to go out on a limb and give you advice. Have you tried to put the radiologist's interpretation into Google to get a general idea of the conditions?
All I can do is translate for you. This is not any type of advice or suggestion for diagnosis, treatment, etc. This is something you should definitely wait to talk with your healthcare provider.
Dextrosclerosis is specific type of scoliosis, or abnormal curvature of the spine. It is a curvature of the spine to the right (the convexity is on the right). Mild dextrosclerosis simply means you have a slight abnormal curvature.
Spina bifida occulta is the mildest form of spina bifida, a congenital defect in which some vertebrae are not fully formed or fused, which could allow the spinal cord to protrude out of the vertebral canal. But in occulta, the spinal cord is normally developed and covered by skin. This form rarely causes complications.
The pars interarticularis is a region of the vertebrae between the laminae and pedicle. You'll have to look up a pic online. From an oblique view in the lumbar, it forms a "Scotty Dog", consisting of the pedicle, spinous and transverse processes, the superior and inferior facets. A defect may mean something like spondylolysis, but the radiologist put "anterolisthesis", another term for spondylolisthesis, the anterior or forward displacement of a vertebra in relation to the adjacent lower vertebra. In your case, L5 is slightly more forward (0-25% for Grade 1) than it should be on top of S1.
Hope that clears some things up for you. Other than that, I am ethically obligated to say any more.
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