I ran across a question in GT micro that has me vexed. If anybody knows their micro well enough to explain this to me I would be grateful.
Basically the question asks: "...which of the following is not considered to have antigenic variation?"
E. N. gonorrhea
The answer is A.
So, is changing penicillin-binding proteins (a la' Staph) not considered antigenic variation? When I google "antigenic variation + Staph" I get a bunch of articles, so now I am really unsure of this question.
I think I am misunderstanding the definition of antigenic variation.
Sorry that this is off-topic, but I really don't want to start another thread.