Originally Posted by johndoe3344
The predominant source of estrogen in men is by peripheral conversion, not the adrenals.
I'm pretty sure GnRH activates FSH as well... otherwise, what's the mechanism by which exogenous steroid would lead to testicular atrophy?
I meant adrenals as indirect source of estrogens.
Concerning atrophy: iron deposition in pituitary and iron deposition in gonads both cause atrophy