34 which one of the following is not the effect of epinephrine
a. increase of heart rate
b. increase of blood pressure
c. bronchoconstriction..................true
d. vasoconstriction
35 beside inadequate irrigation, what else can be the reason for a dentist to fail to remove totally the canal necrotic tissue?
a. failure to use intra-canal medication
b. failure to remove periapical tissues
c. lack of straight-line access.......true
36 beside drainage, what else should be done for a patient with acute pulpitis
a. antibiotics prescription..........true
b. analgesics
c. removal and debridement of canal therapy
37 N2O is contraindicated in patients who have
a. leukemia....true
b. drug abuse
c. mild-moderate asthma
d. dental anxiety
38 TMD patients usually have
a. psychosis.....true
b. antisocial tendency
c. Schizotypical character
d. drug abuse
39 what does perforation tend to happen at maxillary first premolar during access opening of a root canal therapy
there is a mesial concavity
40 why is Z-plasty preferred over diamond technique for frenum detachment
a. less scar contraction.......true
b. easier in terms of technique
c. less incision needed, no suture needed
41 if a child has diastema of 2mm at the age of 8
a. it can be a normal condition........true
b. it is caused by heavy frenum
c. the child needs orthodontic treatment right the way
42 1 week after multiple extraction and alveoloplasty, the patient returns with a swelling at the ridge area. The patient does not have fever, nor in pain. The swelling extends to mucogingival fold with fluid inside. X-ray shows that there are spicules within the swelling. What should the dentist do
a. prescribe antibiotics and observe for a week
b. prescribe analgesics
c. surgically drain the swelling and remove the bone spicules......true
42 a patient who suffers from insulin shock turns unconscious. What should the dentist do?
a. IV injection of 5% dextran water
b. IV injection of 50% dextran water.....true
c. feed patient with sugar good
43 in order to give a patient an incisor with younger look, what can the dentist do?
a. straighten incisor edge
b. rounding incisor edge......true
c. move the line angles proximally
d. move height of contour gingivally
44 inadequate attached gingiva without any periodontal symptom or sign
no treatment is necessary
45 histologically, aspirin burn is
a. hyperkeratosis
b. dysplasia
c. mucosal necrosis......true
46 what is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
a. correct open bite....i THINK
b. correct deep bite
c. correct angulation of the teeth
d. change arch diameter
47 palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
a. labial bow is not rigid enough
b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect....TRUE
c. labial bow is not functional in this case
48 what effect does a cervical pull headgear has on the maxillary teeth
a. extrusion and distal movement
b. intrusion and distal movement....TRUE
c. extrusion and mesial movement
d. intrusion and mesial movement
49 most of the time, what type of force can a removable appliance provide?
a. intrusion
b. extrusion
c. tipping....TRUE
d. torquing
e. translation
50 what is the definition of total anterior facial height on a cephalograph
a. nasion-menton
b. ANS-menton
c. A-menton
d. A-B
51 what are A and B point on a cephalograph
52 what is the most likely cause of a premature exfoliation of primary canine
inadequate arch space
53 when there is a premature loss of primary mandibular second molars, the permanent mandibular first molar usually change the path of eruption by erupting mesially-what is the cause of change of the eruption
a. occlusion
b. pathological
c. mesial drifting
54 what happen if there is a premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine
the mandibular incisors would move distally and lingually
decrease arch length
shift midline to affect side
need space maintainer
55 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
a. increased
b. decreased
c. stable, no change
56 after the age of 6, where does the mandibular growth of a child mostly happens
posterior to the second molars
57 where is the maxillary growth center
maxillary tuberosity
58 if there is no succedaneous tooth, a primary tooth would absorb
a. more slowly
b. more quickly
c. would not resorb at all
59 a patient who works at a nuclear power plant wears a work badge for detecting exposed amount of radiation annually. When he comes to see a dentist, what is the most likely reason that he does not need to wear his badge during the dental X-ray examination
a. dental x-ray is too small amount for the badge
b. the badge only detects exposed amount at work, the dental X-ray does not include in his work environment dose
c. the badge detects gamma ray, not X-ray
60 if there is radiation exposure of 4 Gy on the arm, what is the likely reaction
a. erythema.....true
b. bone marrow depression
c. vascular shrinkage
61 which cells are the most sensitive to radiotherapy
a. hematopoietics............true
b. GI mucosa
c. muscle
d. adult brain cells
62 upper limb IV injection, the most likely problem is
a. Phlebitis.........true
b. intra-arterial injection
c. vascular breakage
63 a child asking repetitive and persistent questions are most likely
a. very curious about the treatment
b. trying to delay the treatment.....true
c. hyperkinetic
d. audistic
64 the problem that dentists encounter the most during treatment of audistic children is
lack of communication
65 what kind of disease would result a patient to have osteoma and multiple intestinal polyposis
Gardner's syndrome
66 polyposis perioral pigmentation
Peutz-Jeghers
67 a patient who has multiple odontokeratocysts in the jaw and dermal pigmented macules on the back, cyst lesion on the skin should be suspected to have
basal cell nevus syndrome
68 which syndrome would have the triad of diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos multiple bone lesion
Langerhans cell histiocytosis
69 to differentiate cement dysplasia from a periapical cyst
a. pulp testing..........true
b. probing
c. X-ray
70 which of the following would cause malaise and fever on a patient
a. acute periodontal abscess........true
b. acute pulpitis
c. chronic pulpitis
d. acute periodontitis
71 aspirin stops pain by
a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord.......true
b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS
d. stopping local signal production and transduction
72 the following are the natural endorphins except
a. enkephalin
b. endorphin
c. dynorphin
d. bradykinin.......true
73 what is the action of morphine for pain relief
mimicking body endorphin system
74 which one of the following does not have anti-inflammatory reactions
acetaminophen only, all NSAID have anti-inflammatory
75 periodontal disease can be caused by all of the followings except
a. poor oral hygiene
b. heavy dental plaque
c. faulty prosthesis
d. DM........................................i think
76 which of the following materials is very hard to remove from patient's mouth
a. alginate
b. polyether....true
c. polysulfide
d. silicone
77 which one of the followings is not a characteristics of additional type silicone
a. impression must be poured right away because alcohol would vaporized and result in distortion
b. very stable, can be stored for more than a week
c. can have multiple pours
d. high accuracy
e. may release H2 in some materials......true
78 GIC is composed of
aluminosilicate+polyacrylic acid
79 the best and the most effective way to remove stained mottled enamel
a. home bleaching
b. microabrasion technique......true
c. office bleaching
d. walking bleaching
80 what is a microabrasion technique
intrinsic stain can be caused by
porphyria
81 the followings have additive action for each component when used together, except for one, what is the exception
a. Atropine+glycopyrolate (anticholinergic)
b. aspirin acetaminophen
c. penicillin tetracycline......true
82 what is the maximal concentration used for N2O sedation?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 50%..........true
d. 80%
83 patients who have nausea and vomit during N2O sedation usually
a. are allergic to N2O
b. inhale too high concentration of N2O.......true
c. eat a big meal right before the procedure
84 what is the % of US population who sees a dentist each year?
what is the best sedative medication in a dental office setting
a. phenobarbital
b. morphine
c. N2O.....true
85 what are the schedule II drugs?
during fabrication of pediatric SSC, which surface of the tooth requires the least reduction
a. facial
b. lingual.......true
c. proximal
d. they all need the same amount of reduction
86 ataxic epilepsy patients-what are their most common dental problem
a. adontia
b. malocclusion
c. trauma
d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication.......true
87 what is the optimal incisal reduction of anterior porcelain fused to metal crown
a. 1mm
b. 1.5mm
c. 2.0mm......true
d. 2.5mm
88 porcelain veneer-what is the most important advantage
compared with porcelain veneer, what is the most important advantage of resin veneer
a. esthetic
b. cost
c. tooth preservation............true
89 compared with class II plaster, which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of die strength
a. better compression strength
b. better tensile strength
c. require less water
d. higher expansion...true
90 which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
a. better Fluoride release
b. better bonding
c. better esthetic
d. easier for manipulation.......true
91 what is the characteristics of an implant that would change bony resorption pattern
a. intraosseous integration.......true
b. integrate with bone
92 what are the recommended numbers of implants for complete edentous patients
a. maxilla 1 mandibular 1
b maxilla 3 mandibular 2
c. maxilla 6 mandibular 4.........true
d. maxilla 8 mandibular 6
93 what is the term that describe the number of the cases of a disease divided by the population
a. incidence......true
b. ratio
c. prevalence
94 what is median of 10 20 20 20 30 35 40 40 50 50 60.....35 right
apically positioned flap is almost impossible to perform on
a. maxillary buccal area
b. maxillary lingual area..........right
c. mandibullar lingual area
d. mandibular buccal area
95 in order to increase the success rate of treating local juvenile periodontitis, what should be done
a. combine usage of systemic antibiotic.........i think is right
b. local antibiotic treatment
c. use of chlorhexidine
96 class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking up contact at the gingival cavosurface? What is the purpose of placing retention grooves, and where do you place these grooves?
97 which feature provide the BOND onlay the most retention?..........................parralelism of the walls sharp line angles etc..........
98 which drugs have active metabolites that would prolong its effect?
Diazepam, chlordiazepoxide (all choice are narcotics)
99 when a child loses its primary second molar before permanent first molar eruption, what is the choice of space maintainer?
a. lingual holding arch..........true
b. band and loop
c. distal shoes
d. Nance appliance
100 A black male with erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips, the description says that he also have palmar and planta erosion and blisters, what is this syndrome?
a. lichen planus
b. erythema multiform.......true
c. pemphigus vulgaris
d. pemphigoid