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#1 |
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New Member
Join Date: Jul 2004
Posts: 100
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If the doctor writes the generic name of a drug (such as cyclobenzaprine) and then marks do not substitute or DAW 1 do you fill generic or brand. For DAW 1 Ive sometimes seen it mean "Do not substitute" and other times I have seen it mean "Brand is medically nesescary." As for "do not substitute" and writing the generic name, it would seem logical to fill as generic since they wrote the generic name. I wasnt sure if "checking do not substitute" means you can only fill brand regardless of what writen. Maybe the MD cant remember the name of the brand? Thanks! |
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#2 | |
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2K Member
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Quote:
Now, if you see brand medically necessary written on a prescription that was written for the generic, I would probably ask the patient. If the patient doesn't care either way, just fill it generically. If the patient does care, give the doctor a call and see what he has to say. I've never seen that situation occur though, seems like the docs are more likely to forget the generic name than the brand. |
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#3 |
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Senior Member
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Suppose it depends if the Dr owns shares in that company.
johnep |
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#4 | |
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4K Member
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Quote:
I have seen a few Doctors of late doing this because of some bogus news story that came out that said pharmacists were making therapuetic substitutions without consulting the Doctor. I have seen a few Docs write for drugs like Liptior and specify dispense as written because they think someone will try and do a therapeutic substition to simvastatin or some other statin. This is totally absurd since this is not allowed in any state that I know of. |
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