AAMC CBT4 and 4R OFFICIAL Q&A

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This is the official Q&A thread for AAMC CBT4 and 4R.

Please post ONLY questions pertaining to AAMC CBT4 and 4R.
Out of respect for people who may not have completed the other exams, do not post questions or material from any other AAMC exam.

Please see this thread for the rules of order before you post.

Good luck on your MCAT!

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Can someone please explain #20 on 4R. It asks how many ppm is 1%. I thought (1/100) x 10^6= 10^4=1000, answer choice B. But, the answer is C 10,000 ppm.

I don't understand the solution PR gives for this: One percent is equal to 1/100. Multiplying both the numerator and denominator of this fraction by 10^4 = 10,000,
we see that 1% = 10^4/10^6 = 10,000 parts per million.

Even if this solution made sense to me, how would 10^4/10^6 = 10,000? Wouldn't it be equal to 1/10^-2?

edit: I see where the 10,000 ppm is coming from now, but I still don't see how this is the correct way to solve this problem. EK says that ppm doesn't mean the number of solute particles per million molecules. It is the mass of solute per mass of solution times one million.
 
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whoops! don't know how I missed that! can anyone explain this one...the answer is A
mail
 
hey guys,

I'm not understanding #10...I set up doppler equations for each answer choice and then plugged in an arbitrary v to see which one gives me an equivalent answer, but i must be doing something wrong because its not working out. thanks
 
hey guys,

i'm not understanding #10...i set up doppler equations for each answer choice and then plugged in an arbitrary v to see which one gives me an equivalent answer, but i must be doing something wrong because its not working out. Thanks

bump
 
I don't think this is an equation type question, it's a concept type question.

All of the doppler equations are based on a wave traveling at a constant speed in a medium, and the sender and receiver also moving in the same medium. If the relative velocities of the sender and receiver are the same, then the same wave will be perceived by the receiver. It wouldn't matter what the speed of the wave in the medium is.

In the question stem, the original experiment has a relative velocity of +300. Then they ask how to recreate the same scenario when the sender is moving at +600 relative to the ground. The answer is that the receiver moves at +300.

This is very similar to the questions where the wave is a sound wave and the medium (air) is moving because there is a wind.
 
Bump. Problem 130 on the paper version (the 6th question of PS passage 10).. The answer says that electrons flow from cathode to anode. Don't electrons flow from anode to cathode, since current flow is from cathode to anode and by convention current flow is the "flow" of protons?
 
Item 127. Increased vasoconstriction has an important role in which of the following situations?
B) Increasing blood flow to muscles during exercise
D) Maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage


Increasing blood flow is technically done by vasodilation within the muscle tissue. Though vasoconstriction of the viscera is also a sympathetic function, it doesn't directly increase flow to the muscles. It just allows more blood to be shunted to the vasodilated muscles.

Vasospasm is the first step in clotting (which is what you would want if you had a hemorrhage). Vasospasm directly leads to vasoconstriction, thus vasoconstriction is important to maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage. If you didn't vasoconstrict proximal to the hemorrhage, you would lose a ton of blood to your interstitium.

Answer B is partially true, but answer D is better. It's a tricky question that is much easier to answer if you've had a physiology course.
 
Thanks, I get it, but the question is super tricky, especially when B is "right". Oh wells still got a 12 on BS so I can't complain too much, considering these bio passages were tricky.


That's how MCAT questions will be though. Possibly 2 or 3 "right" answers with only 1 best answer.
 
Increasing blood flow is technically done by vasodilation within the muscle tissue. Though vasoconstriction of the viscera is also a sympathetic function, it doesn't directly increase flow to the muscles. It just allows more blood to be shunted to the vasodilated muscles.

Vasospasm is the first step in clotting (which is what you would want if you had a hemorrhage). Vasospasm directly leads to vasoconstriction, thus vasoconstriction is important to maintaining blood pressure during a hemorrhage. If you didn't vasoconstrict proximal to the hemorrhage, you would lose a ton of blood to your interstitium.

Answer B is partially true, but answer D is better. It's a tricky question that is much easier to answer if you've had a physiology course.

I chose D, but by a different rationale. It may be over simplistic, but what I though as i read it was: blood flow mainly increases during exercise due to an increase in heart rate and force (pressure) (muscles need O2, thus more blood flow).... vasoconstriction during hemorrhage sounded better (by POE).
Just a different take in logic...it may help.
 
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I chose D, but by a different rationale. It may be over simplistic, but what I though as i read it was: blood flow mainly increases during exercise due to an increase in heart rate and force (pressure) (muscles need O2, thus more blood flow).... vasoconstriction during hemorrhage sounded better (by POE).
Just a different take in logic...it may help.

Yea that's true and it works in this situation. The main thing to know (imo) in relation to this question is that during exercise your sympathetics are stimulated (any stress will stim sympathetics). Sympathetics vasoconstrict viscera and vasodilate skeletal muscle, skin, etc.

Though it's not necessary to know that for the question, I think that is what the key concept was.
 
Yea that's true and it works in this situation. The main thing to know (imo) in relation to this question is that during exercise your sympathetics are stimulated (any stress will stim sympathetics). Sympathetics vasoconstrict viscera and vasodilate skeletal muscle, skin, etc.

Though it's not necessary to know that for the question, I think that is what the key concept was.
:thumbup:
 
I'm confused about something that is pretty basic and conceptual. In passage VII of the PS section, the electrons accelerate or move towards the anode, but I thought the anode was negative, and so if electrons are negatively charged, why would they move towards the anode? Shouldn't electrons be ejected from the anode and move towards the cathode, since the cathode is positively charged? I thought electrons move towards cathode, at least that's what I remember from the BR electrochemistry chapter.
 
can anyone help me with 46 and 47?

So for 47, if I set up the equation in the passage I get: KE(1/2mv2)=hf-work function, so by just looking at the equation increasing frequency, increases velocity? is that right thinking?

And 46 I'm kind of lost, am I being a dummy and is it just asking the big picture question? i.e. electron ejection from the cathode results in production of current?

For 47, yeah, that's pretty much it. If you increase the frequency you're increasing the energy of the photon. Since the energy required to eject an electron hasn't changed, this extra energy must go into the electron's kinetic energy, which, assuming constant electron mass, means velocity.

For 46, yes again. Basically, if you have electrons flowing around the circuit you have current. That, and none of the answers really make sense.


I'm confused about something that is pretty basic and conceptual. In passage VII of the PS section, the electrons accelerate or move towards the anode, but I thought the anode was negative, and so if electrons are negatively charged, why would they move towards the anode? Shouldn't electrons be ejected from the anode and move towards the cathode, since the cathode is positively charged? I thought electrons move towards cathode, at least that's what I remember from the BR electrochemistry chapter.

Well, cathode/anode naming schemes always confused the hell out of me too. According to Wikipedia, in a diode the convention is that the anode is where current flows into the device. Ultimately, though, you should be able to see which way the electrons are going to be moving by looking at the terminals on the battery.
 
Thanks mcloaf for the explanation on which direction the electrons should travel.

Did anyone find the second orgo passage (passage VII) from BS incredibly difficult? There were so many different compound names that my head my spinning. I ended up guessing on almost all the questions in that passage, and got only half right. :(
 
Item 124:

The concentration within which muscle tension is most sensitive to ACh is:

A) Less than 10^-8M
B) near 10^-7M
C) Greater than 10^-6
D) Much wider in the ring w/o endothelium than with endothelium

The correct choice is B, but I put D after considering B. While I can see that there is a steep drop off at that point, I thought that D considered both types of rings and was the better answer. Were to assume they were talking about intact muscles all the time?
 
Item 124:

The concentration within which muscle tension is most sensitive to ACh is:

A) Less than 10^-8M
B) near 10^-7M
C) Greater than 10^-6
D) Much wider in the ring w/o endothelium than with endothelium

The correct choice is B, but I put D after considering B. While I can see that there is a steep drop off at that point, I thought that D considered both types of rings and was the better answer. Were to assume they were talking about intact muscles all the time?

D isn't true. The passage says that vasodilation in response to Ach was inhibited in the endothelial layer was damaged. So the range of sensitivity to Ach must be greater with endothelium than without.
 
For the sake of the MCAT, only understand that diprotics are highly acidic for the initial proton only. If you think about it conceptually, it makes sense, since the initial proton makes the deprotonation of the second proton less likely. Thus, the acidity of the second proton is significantly less than the initial.
If the MCAT wants you to take the second proton into consideration, it will ask you what the change in pH will be from the second proton or something along the lines of that. The idea is that if the pH were to be calculated according to the deprotonation of both H's, it would be closer to the pKa of the initial deprotonation.
Just understand how the initial proton basically makes the resulting monoprotic acid a weak acid and that it will not significantly affect the pH of hte resulting solution.

epic bump, but is this true? I missed #52 and took into account the second proton, should we ignore the effects of the second proton unless it specifies us to take into account?
 
first of all, there's a big difference between almost the same and the same. The first thing you want to do for question 137 is draw out 4-methyl-2-pentanone:

4-methyl-2-pentanone.gif


(you'll see that this is correct because the longest carbon chain is 5 carbons, the carbonyl is in the 2 position, and the methyl group is in the 4 position).

Now, in Scheme 1, they show the malonic ester synthesis, but the acetoacetic ester synthesis is exactly the same, except that instead of having a carboxylic acid as the product, for the acetoacetic ester synthesis, the product is a ketone. The product of the acetoacetic ester synthesis should look like this:

acetoaceticproduct.gif


In both cases, the R is from the RX that we use in the alkylation step.

So, to figure out what alkyl halide we need to use, we simply have to look at the product we want and see what the correct R group is:

compare-1.gif


So, based on this, the appropriate R group must be:

rgrp.gif


(the little squiggly line means that the bond that it crosses is not part of the R group, but is where the R group will connect to the halide)

Thus, the appropriate alkyl halide is

rx.gif


This is an isopropyl halide, so the correct choice is isopropyl iodide.

Now, let's see what would happen if I used propyl chloride:

propcl.gif


The part in green is the R group:

propyl.gif


Remember the form of the product so we'll know where the R group goes:

acetoaceticproduct.gif


Thus:

compare2.gif


Which gives us 2-hexanone as our product:

2-hexanone.gif


Questions on the MCAT that introduce new reactions are almost always trying to test whether you can recognize the pattern and follow it. They will usually give you a figure or something that has a general form of the product, and then give you new questions that require you to simply follow that general form.

Question 140 can be done in 2 ways. You can either recognize A as the correct answer immediately, or you can eliminate the other 3 answer choices. Let's eliminate first, then explain why A is right.

We can eliminate B because it doesn't make sense. B says that the proton on the alpha carbon is more acidic the second time, so a weaker base pulls off a more strongly acidic proton more effectively. But that's just silly. A weaker base isn't more effective at pulling off a strongly acidic proton. A strong base will pull off the proton just as effectively, if not more effectively, than a weaker base. There would be no point in changing bases to make it weaker. It's like saying that a bodybuilder will have more trouble picking up a 5 pound weight than an 8-year-old would. Sure, when the weight is only 5 lbs, the 8 year old can probably pick it up. But that doesn't mean the bodybuilder wouldn't be able to pick it up just as easily. So B is definitely incorrect.

C is also definitely incorrect. C says that, because the monoalkylated product is more sterically hindered, you'll need a larger base. But it's just the opposite. If steric hindrance is a problem, you use a smaller base so that it can find its way through the crowded space.

D can be eliminated for a few reasons. First of all, it's just not true. Ethanol is relatively polar, so adding an alkyl group to the molecule you want to dissolve in ethanol will make it less polar and therefore less soluble in methanol. Also, the answer choice claims that, since the monoalkylated product is more soluble in ethanol, that means that you have to change solvents. But if you think about it, why would increased solubility mean you'd have to change solvents. If you were doing the initial alkylation in ethanol, and your product becomes more soluble in ethanol, you'd probably want to keep it in ethanol. If you weren't doing the initial alkylation in ethanol, then why do you care about the ethanol solubility?

So that leaves choice A. Choice A is the opposite of choice B, and makes sense. It says that you change to a stronger base because the first alkylation made the alpha proton less acidic. Logically, this makes sense since, assuming that their statement that the alpha proton is less acidic is true, your original weaker base may not have been strong enough to pull off the less acidic proton, so now you need a stronger one to pull off the more weakly acidic proton. The other reason we can be sure of our answer is because the first part of the statement is true. Alkyl groups are electron donating. Since deprotonation of the alpha carbon leaves us with a carbanion, electron donating groups decrease the stability of the carbanion. This means that the alpha carbon is less acidic with the alkyl group because the conjugate base that you get after deprotonation is less stable.

If you notice, each answer choice was in the form:

"Because blah blah is true, blah blah is needed."

However, to answer this question, you never actually had to know if the "because blah blah is true" part was actually true. All you had to recognize was that the "blah blah is needed" part was not a logical conclusion that could be drawn from the "because blah blah is true" part.

Hope that helps
do you know the mechanism by which the reaction goes from step 2 to the final product in the given scheme? i.e. how is the ester group to the right removed so that the molecule terminates at the R group? (this is in regard to question #137)
 
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I also think B can be valid as well, although I picked A because I thought the same thing about cell wall vs virus capsule.

As far as your question goes, the passage states that the final product is determined by the alkylating agent in paragraph 1. Paragraph 2 also states that the enolate ion is alkylated by an alkyl halide. Starting out with acetoacetic ester, you enolize it to form an enolate with a negative charge on the central carbon. This carbon is alkylated. You should recognize the enolate + alkyl halide nucleophilic substitution reaction. Now you have to figure out what alkyl group was added to the central carbon. Drawing 4-methyl-2-pentanone, you can see that the alkyl group is isopropyl. Even if the text was confusing, the diagram clearly shows what occurs.

i'm still confused with 139. After one alkylation we would have 2-pentanone. The passage states that the second alkylylation occurs at the less substituted enolate ion. Looking at 2-pentanone, I could form an enolate by deprotonating carbon 1 or carbon 3. Deprotonating carbon 3 would yield the product shown, but the passage says the less substituted enolate would form (isn't that an enolate from carbon 1?). I'm just trying to understand why it alkylates to give the producdt shown if the passage explicitly states that the carbon 1 should be alkylated? Unless i'm misunderstanding something
 
Can someone explain #25? Thanks

You can tell from the structural formula that succinic acid is diprotic, first of all, which should eliminate answers C and D. Next, realize that the meaning of diprotic acid is that it has two acidic protons, which means that during and acid-base titration, there are two moles of acid, per molecule of succinic acid. Since there are 2 moles of acid per molecule of the diprotic acid, it will take twice as much base to fully titrate as compared to a monoprotic acid (where there is only 1 mole acid per molecule). Also, you'll see two separate equivalence points on the titration curve. It will basically look like two monoprotic acid titration curves cut and pasted together.
 
You can tell from the structural formula that succinic acid is diprotic, first of all, which should eliminate answers C and D. Next, realize that the meaning of diprotic acid is that it has two acidic protons, which means that during and acid-base titration, there are two moles of acid, per molecule of succinic acid. Since there are 2 moles of acid per molecule of the diprotic acid, it will take twice as much base to fully titrate as compared to a monoprotic acid (where there is only 1 mole acid per molecule). Also, you'll see two separate equivalence points on the titration curve. It will basically look like two monoprotic acid titration curves cut and pasted together.

Thank you :thumbup:
 
So I missed #42 (in PS) because I read "upon reaching the anode" as meaning "at or after the point at which the electron has reached the anode." Once the electron contacts the anode, it will stop moving, thus it's kinetic energy will be zero. I guess I'm overthinking the question?
 
From the definition of the electric field: E = V/L. The -IR is taking into account the internal resistance of the battery, I dont think this is needed to solve the question tho.
Just some comments on this old post:

1) internal resistance is normally little r

2) This can't be right because the explanation specifically says increasing circuit resistance would decrease the field.
 
Passage IX: where would the cell be arrested?

If the anti-inflammatory drug "interferes" with DNA replication, shouldn't the cell cycle be arrested in G2, when all the DNA checks are performed in preparation for division? I'm pretty sure I've heard the term "G2 arrest" thrown about, not "S arrest," as the test would have me believe.

I would also like to know if anyone can clear this up.
 
Thank you! Didn't know that! It wasn't listed in any of the material I read during review but you're completely correct. I wonder why it was left out of the various prep books?

I guess its not a very emphasized point. But since DNA replication and, thus, the S-phase are such critical components of the cell cycle, its reasonable to assume there is some checkpoint marker analysis that occurs in this phase before progression, anyway.

Cell cycle is virtually perfect in the sense that normal cells have very meticulous mechanisms that prevent abnormalities.
 
So I missed #42 (in PS) because I read "upon reaching the anode" as meaning "at or after the point at which the electron has reached the anode." Once the electron contacts the anode, it will stop moving, thus it's kinetic energy will be zero. I guess I'm overthinking the question?

I almost chose zero because for the same reason. What made me change though was when you think about it, when a particle strikes a surface, it doesn't immediately transfer all energy. There is a point where the particle is literally touching (reached) the plate, but hasn't actually begun decelerating and transferring energy. It's kind of like if you were to throw a rubber ball at a wall the ball would travel in a spherical form all the way to the wall, and then eventually have a point where the ball touching the wall but hasn't begun to compress. This is the point where the ball has reached the wall, but hasn't actually converted any of its kinetic energy to potential energy yet. Immediately after that moment, the ball begins to compress, losing kinetic and gaining potential energy. Therefore, if the energy hasn't begun to transfer, you can assume that at t=0 of striking the plate, 0 of the energy has transferred, therefore the KE is at its maximal value (equal to the original PE).





On that note, question 108 has an explanation that confused me a bit.

It mentions that "an impurity of an organic solid lowers the melting point of that solid..."

This doesn't really make much sense to me. Wouldn't it essentially take a weighted average of the two solids for melting points? If you have a solid that has a melting point of 50 C and it is contaminated with something that has a MP of 60 C, surely the MP won't go below 50, correct? Yet by the explanation given, the MP would decrease...
 
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I almost chose zero because I initially had the same line of thinking. What made me change though was when you think about it, when a particle strikes a surface, it doesn't immediately transfer all energy. There is a point where the particle is literally touching (reached) the plate, but hasn't actually begun decelerating and transferring energy. Therefore, if the energy isn't all transferred, you can assume that at t=0 of striking the plate, 0 of the energy has transferred, therefore the KE is at its maximal value.





On that note, question 108 has an explanation that confused me a bit.

It mentions that "an impurity of an organic solid lowers the melting point of that solid..."

This doesn't really make much sense to me. Wouldn't it essentially take a weighted average of the two solids for melting points? If you have a solid that has a melting point of 50 C and it is contaminated with something that has a MP of 60 C, surely the MP won't go below 50, correct? Yet by the explanation given, the MP would decrease...

I don't think that a weighted average is an accurate assumption. The idea is that the impurity causes a disruption of the intermolecular forces that sustain the solid phase of the crystals. Without disruption, a pure crystal would have maximal MP. The introduction of a contaminant, which is usually at very tiny amounts, would disrupt the maximal IMF formation, decreasing the MP.

Now, the optimal MP depends on the majority substance. Say you have substance A with MP 50C and substance B with MP 80C. If B is contaminating A, then that means the mixture will have MP close to that of A (but still decreased due to contamination). If A is contaminating B, that means the mixture will have MP close to that of B (but also decreased due to contamination). Ultimately, all contaminated crystals will have MP just lower than the optimal MP, generally within a range.

Hope that made sense.
 
More of a terminology question..

Passage IV talks about "volumetric analysis" and says that "the NaOH was standardized by each student by titration agains a pure sample of KHP.."

What does it mean to be standardized? Is it just to be titrated with?

Also, why did it have to be "standardized" before being tirades with the unknown?

Thanks!!!
 
More of a terminology question..

Passage IV talks about "volumetric analysis" and says that "the NaOH was standardized by each student by titration agains a pure sample of KHP.."

What does it mean to be standardized? Is it just to be titrated with?

Also, why did it have to be "standardized" before being tirades with the unknown?

Thanks!!!

Standardization is a standard :)laugh::laugh:) lab procedure that is used to verify the concentration of the titrant.
 
Question 126.

The two primary factors that normally determine the level of blood pressure are:
(I was in between B and D)

B. the cardiac output and the resistance to blood flow.

D. the heart rate (heartbeats/minute) and the cardiac stroke volume.

How is D wrong?

Thank you!
 
#22
What is the approximate molarity of the solution prepared by the instructor?

Okay folks, if molarity = moles/volume of solution, then why is answer explanation calculating molarity as moles/volume of solvent? They used solvent instead of solution!???
 
#22
What is the approximate molarity of the solution prepared by the instructor?

Okay folks, if molarity = moles/volume of solution, then why is answer explanation calculating molarity as moles/volume of solvent? They used solvent instead of solution!???

Either a typo or equating V_solvent to V_solution, which is pretty reasonable for most solutions of solid dissolved in water.
 
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Either a typo or equating V_solvent to V_solution, which is pretty reasonable for most solutions of solid dissolved in water.

Thanks for responding!

If I understand you correctly, "equating V solvent to V solution" would be the same as deciding that the volume of the solutions is close enough to the volume of solvent that they can be used interchangeably (in that particular example)?

I think that's what they did. I'm not sure how to predict when that is or is not okay. (I actually got this question right because the answer choices were pretty far apart. Just hoping the MCAT wouldn't test the part I'm not clear about (in bold).
 
Help with passage 6:

#83.
The author implies that an animal without consciousness is not without:
A. Awareness of it's individuality
versus
C. Able to express knowledge

#84
The author's argument that culture contributes to human evolution depends on the acceptance of which of the following premises?

B. Consciousness and culture give humans a sense of specialness
verus
D. Genetic mutations do not cause rapid social changes

I am absolutely puzzled after going over this yesterday and today. Please help!
 
Help with passage 6:

#83.
The author implies that an animal without consciousness is not without:
A. Awareness of it's individuality
versus
C. Able to express knowledge

#84
The author's argument that culture contributes to human evolution depends on the acceptance of which of the following premises?

B. Consciousness and culture give humans a sense of specialness
verus
D. Genetic mutations do not cause rapid social changes

I am absolutely puzzled after going over this yesterday and today. Please help!


83) The author states that animals " do not know they know." Answer choice A is the only one where the animal is not drawing on a primitive instinct.

84.) The passage indicates that evolution has happened at a very fast rate. If genetic mutation ONLY occurs very slowly, culture must be the reason for the change of pace. If mutations could affect evolution quickly, then culture would have no support for inducing evolution.
 
In the freeze-thaw frog passage, what does plasma hemoglobin level represent? Is it a measure of the hemolysis because normal hemoglobin shouldn't be found in the plasma? Is that why Figure 2 shows that survival and protection against hemolysis are promoted by exogenous glucose?
 
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