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I was reading the MCAT 2015 pdf document on how the test is scored and I came across this:
'Because the 2016 application cycle will open before the 2015 testing year is done, we will use data from the first few administrations of the new exam to create the percentile rank tables that your admissions committee can use for 2016 selection. We recognize that the first test takers on the new exam may be different from test takers who sit for the exam later in the year. It is possible that early test takers will be higher scoring than those who test later. We also recognize that 2015 may be an unusual testing year. Some test takers may decide to wait until 2016 to sit for the new MCAT exam.'
Why would AAMC think the early test-takers would score higher than the later test-takers? I mean, shouldn't it be the opposite way around? We hardly have any practice materials to work on! Is it possible that the AAMC assumes the first few administrations of the new MCAT will be easier and more leniently scored than the others?
'Because the 2016 application cycle will open before the 2015 testing year is done, we will use data from the first few administrations of the new exam to create the percentile rank tables that your admissions committee can use for 2016 selection. We recognize that the first test takers on the new exam may be different from test takers who sit for the exam later in the year. It is possible that early test takers will be higher scoring than those who test later. We also recognize that 2015 may be an unusual testing year. Some test takers may decide to wait until 2016 to sit for the new MCAT exam.'
Why would AAMC think the early test-takers would score higher than the later test-takers? I mean, shouldn't it be the opposite way around? We hardly have any practice materials to work on! Is it possible that the AAMC assumes the first few administrations of the new MCAT will be easier and more leniently scored than the others?