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I have been trying to fully wrap my head around Archimedes' principle and buoyancy but I have one question that I haven't been able to resolve. For some reason, i believe that I might be over-thinking it.
So I know that when an object is fully submerged (sinks) in a fluid, the volume of fluid displaced is the same as the volume of the entire object. Now what if a object is partially submerged (floats)? What is the significance of the volume of the fluid displaced? is it the same as the weight of the object or is it the same as the volume of the fraction of the object submerged?
Some sources say it is the former but I have one source that states it is the latter
Any help clearing this up (in plain language ) would be greatly appreciated!
So I know that when an object is fully submerged (sinks) in a fluid, the volume of fluid displaced is the same as the volume of the entire object. Now what if a object is partially submerged (floats)? What is the significance of the volume of the fluid displaced? is it the same as the weight of the object or is it the same as the volume of the fraction of the object submerged?
Some sources say it is the former but I have one source that states it is the latter
Any help clearing this up (in plain language ) would be greatly appreciated!