Canadian Acfd Eligibility Exam

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MACEDON

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Is anybody getting ready for the next eligibility exam in Canada or has anyone recently passed or almost passed IT. I hear that the next May exam is going to be pretty much easier that the passed ones and the ones to come. NEED SOME INSIDE INFO, LET'S SHARE, LET'S UNITE, LET'S KICK ASS :smuggrin: !!!!

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Hi all any 1 willing for combined studies , m at Malton , near 3533 derry rd east , m gonna be at Malton Community Center Library from Monday 19th March...
If any1 wants to share Septembers' remembered questions , il contribute as many as i can ,not much but iv written about 30-40 Q's...
Good Luck to all
 
i would like to help all those who plan to give eligibilty exam. its a tough exam and u need patience and hard work to get good percentage. and even after getting good scores university interviews and practicals are really hard , too much competition on that level.i would recommend to every one who is giving ee that to also give national board part 1 to be on the safe side when the time comes for admission so u wont be disappointed.i would suggest all of you to study oral pathology intensively for ee as 50% of questions are oral patho.peadiatric dentistry is important also . good luck to all.
 
hey guys..anyone studying down at reference library downtown on yonge/bloor? or at u of t library down at edward st? where do ppl study?? lets meet up and study from now till may...all of my friends in toronto have no clue about dental stuff and dont like listening to me talk about dental stuff..haha so we need to gather and talk about teeth..so we learn more and retain more info...

add me up on yahoo messenger at jus21280 and on MSN [email protected]
 
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i live in scarborough. i usually go to malvern toronto libary and thrice to toronto denal library for rference .. anyone ??i am giving ee for the very 1st time quite nervous
bye
 
hey masti....what part of scarb do u live in? malvern area im guessing..lets meet up and study sometime...u got MSN or yahoo?
 
hi i have toefl score of 88 doe it work for applying for canadian universities or i have to meettheir requirments as u of t 100 and...
please guide me:smuggrin:
 
hi there,i am intrested in combined study.u can contact me at [email protected]
hey guys..anyone studying down at reference library
downtown on yonge/bloor? or at u of t library down at edward st? where do ppl study?? lets meet up and study from now till may...all of my friends in toronto have no clue about dental stuff and dont like listening to me talk about dental stuff..haha so we need to gather and talk about teeth..so we learn more and retain more info...

add me up on yahoo messenger at jus21280 and on MSN [email protected]
 
My email add is [email protected] we can exchange contact details through eachothers emails if intrested in teaming up. Best of luck. Chirag. Saraiya. :thumbup:


hi
how you doing?i m from brampton.i m lanning to give the exam this time.can u pls guide me .r u interested in group study?pls do contact me at [email protected]
bye
thanks
 
Members don't see this ad :)
Hi all any 1 willing for combined studies , m at Malton , near 3533 derry rd east , m gonna be at Malton Community Center Library from Monday 19th March...
If any1 wants to share Septembers' remembered questions , il contribute as many as i can ,not much but iv written about 30-40 Q's...
Good Luck to all

hi there
how much u have prepared for the test...
 
Hi
I Am Also Studying For May Ee.. I Want To Know How Long Does It Took To Finish Asda One Paper Of 100 Questi..i Just Wants To Know Whether My Speed Is Fine Or I Am Too Slow.. Thanks
 
hi,if i already have the license in USA, can i practice dentistry in Canada, o i have to start again there to get the Canadian license? plz answer me .
 
hiii
i would suggest you to buy both dental decks 1 and 2 and read them all at least 2 times. get some dental mcq books from ur country and practice to increase ur speed of reading and answering, use common sense as they wanna see ur clinical approach to the question. get some ndb books from uni of toronto library for part 2 mcqs it helps a lot. but ee is all about clinical so experince counts . improve ur CV as they check every thing, good ielts score is important,,,, try to get 8 in ielts. if u have 3 years experience, 8 ielts band score,, 82 or 83 percent in ee u will be called for interview in all canadian unis. good luck every one
 
hi no one seems to be interseted to be and meet on mondays,,

any way,
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ,IF LEFT UNTRETED IS MOST LIKELY TO RESULT IN A PERIAPICAL LESION

A, Reversible pulpitis
B, Acure suppurative pulpitis
 
hi no one seems to be interseted to be and meet on mondays,,

any way,
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ,IF LEFT UNTRETED IS MOST LIKELY TO RESULT IN A PERIAPICAL LESION

A, Reversible pulpitis
B, Acure suppurative pulpitis

Classification of pulpitis:
I. Acute pulpitis
A. Acute serous pulpitis
B. Acute suppurative pulpitis
II. Chronic Pulpitis
A. Chronic closed pulpitis
B. Chronic open pulpitis
1. Chronic ulcerative pulpitis
2. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis



Acute partial serous pulpitis
- is an acute inflammation of mild form, usually involving a portion of the unexposed pulp.
Clinical Features:
- Pain is more severe than hyperemia
- Tooth is sensitive to hot and cold temperature but cold can cause
distressing pain than heat.
- Pain persist even after removal of irritant
- The involved tooth usually has extensive caries
- Tooth is not sensitive to percussion

Acute Total Serous Pulpitis
- In total serous pulpitis, a bigger portion of the pulp is involved.
Clinical Features:
- Pain is severe and persistent throbbing or neuralgic type
- Pain becomes worse in recumbent position
- Heat can cause pain of lancinating character and cold seems to relieve the
pain
-Tooth maybe sensitive to percussion due to periapical involvement

ACUTE SUPPURATIVE PULPITIS (PURULENT TYPE)
This is an acute inflammation of the unexposed pulp with accumulation of pus and exudates. Sometimes it may be an open form but the exposed pulp may not have sufficient drainage for the escape of exudate and pus. There is an entrance of infection into the pulp from carious lesion. This is a PROGRESSIVE type of pulpitis. As a result of breakdown of the infected pulp tissue by the action of bacteria and leukocytes, small cavities containing pus develop. These are known as ABSCESSES.
Clinical Features (similar to that of acute serous pulpitis)
- Pain is intense pulsating type which later becomes intermittent throbbing
- Pain is continuous for a long period and becomes worse when heat is
applied but usually relieved temporarily by ice water
- Pain is reflected to a tooth in the opposite jaw or the ear (otalgia) or to a
tooth anterior to an offending one
- X-rays may reveal periapical changes if inflammation progresses to the apex
- Tooth may become sensitive to percussion
- In severe type, lymph nodes may be swollen, fever, headache and general
malaise may develop.

Chronic Pulpitis
Is a slow advancing caries and with low virulence of bacteria. The pulp inflammation at the start is a low grade chronic inflammation or chronic condition may follow an acute pulpitis when drainage is established.
 
Hello to all,
I am a new memeber and want some additional info on practical exams before i drown my self in the dental decks etc. as suggested.
1) has anyone tried admission for UBC, OR LONDON ONTARIO...what does the practical test comprise of? i have read that london has a 5 day testing period...phew! maybe if i know the details it can put my mind to rest and i can study better.

2) Also is it must to keep working in the dental field as an assistant to show dental experience in Canada. What if i have a better job for all the years i am trying for admissions...like driving the bus. i am told that the univ people look for experience in the dental field in canada, or the U.S.. IS IT TRUE?

help and comments will be greatly appreciated
 
Ok here are some questions with my personal correction, I need confirmation and correction if any mistake was made, please prodive me a logical reason if you found any mistake!

I have more... coming soon


Increased tooth mobility can result from:
a) excessive occlusal forces with normal periodontal support
b) apical periodontitis
c) normal occlusal forces with inadequate periodontal support
d) simple marginal gingivitis
A. (1)(2)(3) * APICAL PERIODONTITIS? WHY!
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4)
E. All of above


In a 10-y.o. child with a normal mixed dentition and healthy periodontal tissues, removal of the labial frenum is indicated when
a) the frenum is located at the MG junction
b) a diastema is present but the papilla does not blanch when tension is placed on the frenum
c) the frenum is located on the attached gingival
d) none of the above *

I wanted to make sure we are supposed to wait till the cannines arupet, right?




The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiologic stimulation. *
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction *
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium
A confirmation here would be nice!


Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings. *
C. Odontoblastic processes. *
A.Cementoblasts.

The thing here is that free ends are on the base of the odontoblasts and they convey pain from there, but on the other hand the odontoblastic processes can be consiedered a part of the mechanism why pain is felt!


Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals?
A. Streptococcus viridans *
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Lactobacilli
D. Enterococci
E. Staphylococcus albus

Confirmation needed here


Periodontal pocket epithelium
A. is NOT colonized by bacteria
B. does NOT contain anatomically and physiologically distinct zones
C. is a site where immunological elements interact with pocket bacteria *
D. does NOT provide a barrier against bacterial penetration *

I need confirmation here


A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of

A. pulp stones. *
B. secondary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. primary dentin.

Secondary dentin is formed after root complition. So my vote would go for pulp stones! right?



When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to”

A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron *
B. apply a radiation protection badge
C. use high speed film *
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp
E. take a panoramic film only

In american board exams they say high speed films, but I wonder if canadian boards say the same thing!




Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. 4 only
E. All above

I need some confirmation here!




Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow
1. radiotherapy.
2. dentoalveolar abscess.
3. fracture.
4. Vincent’s angina.
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Confirmation would be nice here


For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess. *
C. Periapical osteofibrosis. *
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.*

I want to make sure which one!
 
Increased tooth mobility can result from:
a) excessive occlusal forces with normal periodontal support
b) apical periodontitis
c) normal occlusal forces with inadequate periodontal support
d) simple marginal gingivitis
A. (1)(2)(3) * APICAL PERIODONTITIS? WHY!
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4)
E. All of above


In a 10-y.o. child with a normal mixed dentition and healthy periodontal tissues, removal of the labial frenum is indicated when
a) the frenum is located at the MG junction
b) a diastema is present but the papilla does not blanch when tension is placed on the frenum
c) the frenum is located on the attached gingival
d) none of the above *

I wanted to make sure we are supposed to wait till the cannines arupet, right?




The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can become keratinized in response to physiologic stimulation. *
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the mucogingival junction *
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous corium
A confirmation here would be nice!


Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings. *
C. Odontoblastic processes. *
A.Cementoblasts.

The thing here is that free ends are on the base of the odontoblasts and they convey pain from there, but on the other hand the odontoblastic processes can be consiedered a part of the mechanism why pain is felt!


Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently found in infected root canals?
A. Streptococcus viridans *
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Lactobacilli
D. Enterococci
E. Staphylococcus albus

Confirmation needed here


Periodontal pocket epithelium
A. is NOT colonized by bacteria
B. does NOT contain anatomically and physiologically distinct zones
C. is a site where immunological elements interact with pocket bacteria *D. does NOT provide a barrier against bacterial penetration *

I need confirmation here


A protective mechanism of the dental pulp to external irritation or caries is the formation of

A. pulp stones. *
B. secondary dentin.
C. secondary cementum.
D. primary dentin.

Secondary dentin is formed after root complition. So my vote would go for pulp stones! right?



When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to"

A. use a thyroid collar and lead apron *
B. apply a radiation protection badge
C. use high speed film *
D. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp
E. take a panoramic film only

In american board exams they say high speed films, but I wonder if canadian boards say the same thing!




Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. 4 only
E. All above

I need some confirmation here!




Osteomyelitis of the mandible may follow
1. radiotherapy.
2. dentoalveolar abscess.
3. fracture.
4. Vincent's angina.
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Confirmation would be nice here


For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess. *
C. Periapical osteofibrosis. *
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.*

I want to make sure which one![/QUOTE]
 
hi
is there anyone in edmonton...?
Is there a study group here..at least someone preparing for the exam or someone who s cleared it...
thanks.
 
Q1 Which of the following antibiotics may be cross allergenic with peniccilin?
A.NEOMYCIN
B.CEPHALAEXIN
C CLINDAMYCIN
D. ERYHROMYCIN

Q2.TETRACYCINES
1. Have no side effects
2. may increase susceptibility to superinfections
3. are safe to use during pregnancy
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity.

A. 2 and 4
B. 4 only

3. The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in deciduous teeth shoulf

A. be parallel to each other
B. converge toward the occlusal surface

4. In a 4 year old child, the primary central incisor has discolored following a traumatic injury. The treatment of choice is
A. pulpotomy
B. pulpectomy
C. observation
D. extraction

5. Antibotic coverage should be provided when performing subgingival curettage for patients with
A. myocardinal infarction
B. dental implants
C. valvular heart disease
D. coronary artery disease

6. In a 10-year old child with a normal miced dentition and healthy periodontal tissues, removal of the labial frenum(frenectomy) is indicated when
a. the frenum is located at the mucogingival junction.
b. a diastema is present but the papilla does not blanch when tension is placed on the frenum.
c. the frenum is located on the attached gingiva.
d. None of the above.

7. During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in
a. peg-shaped teeth
b. partial anodontia (hypodontia)
c. hutchinson's incisors
d. enamel hypoplasia
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta

8. The most important diagnostic element in assessingthe periodontal status of a patient is
a. the results of vitality testing
b. the radiographic appearance
c. the depth of periodontal pockets
d. the mobility of the teeth

9. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require
a. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm
b. a shorter retentive arm
c. more taper
d. a shallower undercut

10. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to
a. use a thyroid collar and lead apron
b. apply a radiation protection badge
c. use high speed film
d. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp

11. When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
a. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction
b. free gingival margin to the ce j
c. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva

12. Pain and difficulty on swallowing, trisums, and a displaced uvula are signs and symptons of infection of which one of the following spaces
a. submandibular
b. lateral parapharyngeal
c. sublingual
d. deep temporal
e. submasseteric

13. In the design of a removable partial denture, guiding planes are made
a. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
b. parallel to the path of insertion
c. ata right angle to the occlusal plane
d. at a right angle to the major connector
 
Q1 Which of the following antibiotics may be cross allergenic with peniccilin?
A.NEOMYCIN
B.CEPHALAEXIN
C CLINDAMYCIN
D. ERYHROMYCIN

Q2.TETRACYCINES
1. Have no side effects
2. may increase susceptibility to superinfections
3. are safe to use during pregnancy
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity.

A. 2 and 4

B. 4 only



3. The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in deciduous teeth shoulf

A. be parallel to each other(not sure)
B. converge toward the occlusal surface

4. In a 4 year old child, the primary central incisor has discolored following a traumatic injury. The treatment of choice is
A. pulpotomy
B. pulpectomy
C. observation
D. extraction

5. Antibotic coverage should be provided when performing subgingival curettage for patients with
A. myocardinal infarction
B. dental implants
C. valvular heart disease[/COLOR]
D. coronary artery disease

6. In a 10-year old child with a normal miced dentition and healthy periodontal tissues, removal of the labial frenum(frenectomy) is indicated when
a. the frenum is located at the mucogingival junction.
b. a diastema is present but the papilla does not blanch when tension is placed on the frenum.
c. the frenum is located on the attached gingiva.
d. None of the above.

7. During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in
a. peg-shaped teeth
b. partial anodontia (hypodontia)
c. hutchinson's incisors
d. enamel hypoplasia
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta

Correct me if I am wrong.
 
Q1 Which of the following antibiotics may be cross allergenic with peniccilin?
A.NEOMYCIN
B.CEPHALAEXIN *************
C CLINDAMYCIN
D. ERYHROMYCIN

Q2.TETRACYCINES
1. Have no side effects
2. may increase susceptibility to superinfections*********
3. are safe to use during pregnancy
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity.**********

A. 2 and 4***********
B. 4 only

3. The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in deciduous teeth shoulf

A. be parallel to each other*******************NOT SURE
B. converge toward the occlusal surface

4. In a 4 year old child, the primary central incisor has discolored following a traumatic injury. The treatment of choice is
A. pulpotomy
B. pulpectomy
C. observation*****************
D. extraction

5. Antibotic coverage should be provided when performing subgingival curettage for patients with
A. myocardinal infarction
B. dental implants
C. valvular heart disease*****************
D. coronary artery disease

6. In a 10-year old child with a normal miced dentition and healthy periodontal tissues, removal of the labial frenum(frenectomy) is indicated when
a. the frenum is located at the mucogingival junction.
b. a diastema is present but the papilla does not blanch when tension is placed on the frenum.
c. the frenum is located on the attached gingiva.
d. None of the above.*******************

7. During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in
a. peg-shaped teeth
b. partial anodontia (hypodontia)
c. hutchinson's incisors
d. enamel hypoplasia********************
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta

8. The most important diagnostic element in assessingthe periodontal status of a patient is
a. the results of vitality testing
b. the radiographic appearance
c. the depth of periodontal pockets*********
d. the mobility of the teeth

9. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromium-cobalt-nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial denture clasp will require
a. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm
b. a shorter retentive arm
c. more taper
d. a shallower undercut**********

10. When a radiographic examination is warranted for a 10 year old child, the most effective way to decrease radiation exposure is to
a. use a thyroid collar and lead apron
b. apply a radiation protection badge
c. use high speed film**************
d. decrease the kilovoltage to 50kVp

11. When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
a. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel junction
b. free gingival margin to the ce j
c. base of the pocket to the crest of the free gingiva*****************

12. Pain and difficulty on swallowing, trisums, and a displaced uvula are signs and symptons of infection of which one of the following spaces
a. submandibular*****************NOT SURE
b. lateral parapharyngeal
c. sublingual
d. deep temporal
e. submasseteric

13. In the design of a removable partial denture, guiding planes are made
a. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
b. parallel to the path of insertion**************NOT SURE


c. ata right angle to the occlusal plane
d. at a right angle to the major connector


THANKS MASTI FOR THE QUESTIONS..LET ME KNOW IF I AM CORRECT.. GOOD LUCK
 
I APPRECIATED YOUR HELP.. HERE ARE FEW MORE

Q1..Osteomylietis of mandible may follow
1 radiotherapy
2 dentoalveolar abscess
3 fracture
4 vincents angina

A 1,2,3
B 1 & 3
C All of the above

Q2.. Following the RCT, the most desirable form of tissue response at apical foramen is

A cementum deposition
B epithelium proliferation from the PDL
C connective tissue formation

Q3.. Composite resin is CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative mat. i cases of

1, cusp replacement
2, bruxism
3, lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margins
4,inability to maintain a dry operating field

A. 1,2,3
B. 1 & 3
C. 2 & 4
D. All of the above

Q4..A 22 year old ,with fractiure of incisal 3rd of tooth 2.1 exposing a small amount of dentine. the fracture occured 1 hour prior.no mobility ,but pain to cold..whats the emergency t/t

A Smooth the surrounding enamel and apply GIC
B Smooth the surrounding enamel and apply calcium hydroxide cement
c place a temprary crown.:luck:
 
I APPRECIATED YOUR HELP.. HERE ARE FEW MORE

Q1..Osteomylietis of mandible may follow
1 radiotherapy
2 dentoalveolar abscess
3 fracture
4 vincents angina

A 1,2,3 :idea:
B 1 & 3
C All of the above

Q2.. Following the RCT, the most desirable form of tissue response at apical foramen is

A cementum deposition:idea:
B epithelium proliferation from the PDL
C connective tissue formation

Q3.. Composite resin is CONTRAINDICATED as a posterior restorative mat. i cases of

1, cusp replacement
2, bruxism
3, lack of enamel at the gingival cavosurface margins
4,inability to maintain a dry operating field

A. 1,2,3
B. 1 & 3
C. 2 & 4
D. All of the above:idea:

Q4..A 22 year old ,with fractiure of incisal 3rd of tooth 2.1 exposing a small amount of dentine. the fracture occured 1 hour prior.no mobility ,but pain to cold..whats the emergency t/t

A Smooth the surrounding enamel and apply GIC:idea:
B Smooth the surrounding enamel and apply calcium hydroxide cement
c place a temprary crown.:luck:

Correct me if I am wrong
 
In children, the most common cause of a fistula is a/an
A. acute periapical abscess*
B. chronic periapical abscess *
C. acute periodontal abscess
D. dentigerous cyst


Which one?




The roots of primary molars in the absence of their permanent successors
1. sometimes are partially resorbed and become ankylosed.
2. may remain for years without significant resorption.
3. may remain for years partially resorbed.
4. are always resorbed.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

HELP!!!



The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4-year
child is
A. regular assessment of arch development.
B. to perform space analysis.*
C. insertion of a space maintainer.*
D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar.
E. extraction of the opposing molar.

what if there was lack of space!!! shouldn't a space analysis be performed first?


During extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. You should
a) remove both and suture
b) leave both and stabilize, if possible *
c) remove both, fill the defect with Gelfoam and suture
d) reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture *

Which is the best?



Alteration of the intestinal flora by some chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation. Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism?
1. Codeine
2. Penicillin V
3. Acetaminophen
4. Tetracycline

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4 *
d) 4 only *
e) All of the above

A reference clearly mentiones penicillin V along with tetracycline, but some opinions say tetracyucline only!


The most common complication of a venipuncture is
a) syncope *
b) hematoma
c) thrombophlebitis
d) embolus

according to the U of T lectures! but I need ot make sure.




A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base will result in
1. slower healing.
2. foreign body inflammatory reaction.
3. wound dehiscence.
4. necrosis of bone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
I need to make sure about this one





The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally. *
B. on the enamel.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally.
D. at the cemento-enamel junction.
E. at the gingival margin.

Isn't the lower the better when it comes to retention and resistence?



The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by:
a. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth
b. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions *
b. placing distal rests on distal abutments
d. Using cast clasps on distal abutments
e. regular relining of the distal extensions*

I don't think regular relining improves the situation when there is additional load, it might improve things when there is resorption.
I believe light occlusion improves the situation when there is additional load, correct me if I am wrong!


To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed:
A. over the crest of the mandibular ridge. *
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge.
C. over the buccal shelf area.
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge. *

Which one pleases the ACFD more?


In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the
following is/are essential?
1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.
A. (1) (2) (3) *
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Can someone tell me if this is right or not?



Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy.

A. valvular heart disease
B. cardiac prosthesis
C. persistant Odontogenic fistula *
D. immuno-suppressive therapy
E. organ transplant *

Why does everybody freak out from organ transplant? isn't it supposed to be living flesh tested for high compatibility which actually managed to replace the damaged original organ? correct me if I am wrong!
I find a presistent odontogenic fistula after treatment a reason for antibiotics when retreating! but maybe my logic is wrong here!
 
let me know where r u.
i am in toronto

In children, the most common cause of a fistula is a/an
A. acute periapical abscess*
B. chronic periapical abscess *not sure
C. acute periodontal abscess
D. dentigerous cyst


Which one?




The roots of primary molars in the absence of their permanent successors
1. sometimes are partially resorbed and become ankylosed.
2. may remain for years without significant resorption.
3. may remain for years partially resorbed.
4. are always resorbed.

A. (1) (2) (3):oops:
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

HELP!!!



The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4-year
child is
A. regular assessment of arch development.
B. to perform space analysis.*
C. insertion of a space maintainer.*:scared:
D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar.
E. extraction of the opposing molar.

what if there was lack of space!!! shouldn't a space analysis be performed first?


During extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. You should
a) remove both and suture
b) leave both and stabilize, if possible *:rolleyes: (extract the tooth later)
c) remove both, fill the defect with Gelfoam and suture
d) reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture *

Which is the best?



Alteration of the intestinal flora by some chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation. Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism?
1. Codeine
2. Penicillin V
3. Acetaminophen
4. Tetracycline

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4 *:idea:
d) 4 only *
e) All of the above

A reference clearly mentiones penicillin V along with tetracycline, but some opinions say tetracyucline only!


The most common complication of a venipuncture is
a) syncope *
b) hematoma:)
c) thrombophlebitis
d) embolus

according to the U of T lectures! but I need ot make sure.




A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base will result in
1. slower healing.
2. foreign body inflammatory reaction.
3. wound dehiscence.
4. necrosis of bone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *:thumbup:
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
I need to make sure about this one





The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally. *
B. on the enamel.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally.
D. at the cemento-enamel junction.
E. at the gingival margin.:confused:

Isn't the lower the better when it comes to retention and resistence?



The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by:
a. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth
b. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions *:oops:
b. placing distal rests on distal abutments
d. Using cast clasps on distal abutments
e. regular relining of the distal extensions*

I don't think regular relining improves the situation when there is additional load, it might improve things when there is resorption.
I believe light occlusion improves the situation when there is additional load, correct me if I am wrong!


To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed:
A. over the crest of the mandibular ridge. *
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge.
C. over the buccal shelf area.
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge. *:smuggrin:

Which one pleases the ACFD more?


In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the
following is/are essential?
1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.
A. (1) (2) (3) *:idea:
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Can someone tell me if this is right or not?



Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy.

A. valvular heart disease
B. cardiac prosthesis
C. persistant Odontogenic fistula ****************
D. immuno-suppressive therapy
E. organ transplant *

Why does everybody freak out from organ transplant? isn't it supposed to be living flesh tested for high compatibility which actually managed to replace the damaged original organ? correct me if I am wrong!
I find a presistent odontogenic fistula after treatment a reason for antibiotics when retreating! but maybe my logic is wrong here!
 
which of the fo;;owing are phagocytic
a neutrophil and histiocyte
b neutrophil and lymphocyte
this is question from asda ii-L no. 118
 
which of the fo;;owing are phagocytic
a neutrophil and histiocyte
b neutrophil and lymphocyte
this is question from asda ii-L no. 118

the answer is (a) neutrophil and histiocyte
 
let me know where r u.
i am in toronto
Originally Posted by samyred
In children, the most common cause of a fistula is a/an
A. acute periapical abscess*
B. chronic periapical abscess *not sure
C. acute periodontal abscess
D. dentigerous cyst


Which one?
B.chronic periapical abscess, fistulas are formed from chronic infections.



The roots of primary molars in the absence of their permanent successors
1. sometimes are partially resorbed and become ankylosed.
2. may remain for years without significant resorption.
3. may remain for years partially resorbed.
4. are always resorbed.

A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

HELP!!!

A. (1) (2) (3)


The most appropriate treatment following the extraction of a first primary molar in a 4-year
child is
A. regular assessment of arch development.
B. to perform space analysis.*
C. insertion of a space maintainer.*:scared:
D. extraction of the contra-lateral molar.
E. extraction of the opposing molar.

what if there was lack of space!!! shouldn't a space analysis be performed first?

C.insertion of a space maintainer.


During extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. The tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. You should
a) remove both and suture
b) leave both and stabilize, if possible *:rolleyes: (extract the tooth later)
c) remove both, fill the defect with Gelfoam and suture
d) reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture *

Which is the best?

d)reflect the mucoperiosteum,remove the tooth,leave the tuberosity in place and suture

Alteration of the intestinal flora by some chemotherapeutic agents can interfere with reabsorption of a contraceptive steroid thus preventing the recirculation of the drug through the enterohepatic circulation. Which of the following can interfere with this mechanism?
1. Codeine
2. Penicillin V
3. Acetaminophen
4. Tetracycline

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 4 *:idea:
d) 4 only *
e) All of the above

c) 2 and 4
A reference clearly mentiones penicillin V along with tetracycline, but some opinions say tetracyucline only!


The most common complication of a venipuncture is
a) syncope *
b) hematoma
c) thrombophlebitis
d) embolus

according to the U of T lectures! but I need ot make sure.


d) thrombophlebitis


A surgical flap not repositioned over a bony base will result in
1. slower healing.
2. foreign body inflammatory reaction.
3. wound dehiscence.
4. necrosis of bone.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3) *:thumbup:
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
I need to make sure about this one





The gingival margin of the preparation for a full crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown that satisfies the requirements for retention and resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally. *
B. on the enamel.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally.
D. at the cemento-enamel junction.
E. at the gingival margin.

Isn't the lower the better when it comes to retention and resistence?

C. at least 1mm supragingivally


The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by:
a. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth
b. keeping a light occlusion on the distal extensions *:oops:
b. placing distal rests on distal abutments
d. Using cast clasps on distal abutments
e. regular relining of the distal extensions*

I don't think regular relining improves the situation when there is additional load, it might improve things when there is resorption.
I believe light occlusion improves the situation when there is additional load, correct me if I am wrong!


To improve denture stability, mandibular molar teeth should normally be placed:
A. over the crest of the mandibular ridge. *
B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge.
C. over the buccal shelf area.
D. lingual to the crest of the mandibular ridge. *:smuggrin:

Which one pleases the ACFD more?

B. buccal to the crest of the mandibular ridge.

In order to achieve a proper interproximal contact when using a spherical alloy, which of the
following is/are essential?
1. A larger sized condenser.
2. A thinner matrix band.
3. An anatomical wedge.
4. Use of mechanical condensation.
A. (1) (2) (3) *:idea:
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

Can someone tell me if this is right or not?



Which of the following conditions would NOT require antibiotic premedication before endodontic therapy.

A. valvular heart disease
B. cardiac prosthesis
C. persistant Odontogenic fistula ****************
D. immuno-suppressive therapy
E. organ transplant *

Why does everybody freak out from organ transplant? isn't it supposed to be living flesh tested for high compatibility which actually managed to replace the damaged original organ? correct me if I am wrong!
I find a presistent odontogenic fistula after treatment a reason for antibiotics when retreating! but maybe my logic is wrong here!

C. persistant odontogenic fistula, fistulas dissapear after removal of infection during RCT. The person with the other conditions mentioned are prone to infection, so antibiotic premedication is given.
 
i am giving ee first time . i wants to know r there any questions with pictures as in nbde for u.s. please do let me know if someone had previous experiance..and also i heard there r mostly clinical based questions ..is that true..
 
i am giving ee first time . i wants to know r there any questions with pictures as in nbde for u.s. please do let me know if someone had previous experiance..and also i heard there r mostly clinical based questions ..is that true..

Kidda dosanjh,
my wife is taking ee for the first time as well this may.. I have asked same question here before and as far as i know there are NO questions with pictures.. for the second part you are right.. they are more clinically oriented.. hope this helps..
Gud Luck..
 
Q2.TETRACYCINES
1. Have no side effects
2. may increase susceptibility to superinfections*********
3. are safe to use during pregnancy
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity.**********

A. 2 and 4***********
B. 4 only
what is the difference betwen superinfection and suprainfection???
 
Q2.TETRACYCINES
1. Have no side effects
2. may increase susceptibility to superinfections*********
3. are safe to use during pregnancy
4. have a wide spectrum of antibacterial activity.**********

A. 2 and 4***********
B. 4 only
what is the difference betwen superinfection and suprainfection???

Superinfection

Superinfection (suprainfection) may occur with the tetracyclines, particularly the older, more poorly absorbed ones when given orally. Because of their broad spectrum of activity, activity against commensal organisms of the gut, and effective concentration in the gut, they nearly always alter the intestinal flora. This may occur within 24 to 48 hours, but these changes are not always clinically evident as diarrhea. It is not unusual to find superinfection with yeasts or resistant pathogenic bacteria. Although frowned upon by the FDA, commercial preparations of tetracyclines combined with nystatin (an oral antifungal) have been prepared to help combat superinfection with yeasts. Many authorities believe that because such superinfections do not always occur, there is less risk to the patient if one waits until there is evidence of yeast superinfection before beginning therapy.



http://www.mold-survivor.com/tetracycline.html
 
Here is some food for your thought:
-Exfoliative cytology will help diagnose
1-Candidiasis. 2-Herpetic gingivostomatitis. 3-shingles. 4-cold sores. 5-chiken pox. 6-hairy leukoplakia.

-Loss of proximal contact in class II amalgam is most probably due to MUTLIPLE ANSWERS
1-over-tightened matrix. 2-improperly placed wedge. 3-insuffecient condensation. 4-simultaneously placed restorations in adjacent teeth.

-A child with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis, the most appropriate treatment is
1-Topical antiviral. 2-Topical antifungal. 3-Antibiotic. 4-Analgesic & hydration management.

-The effect of local anesthesia injected directly (thru access cavity) into a very inflamed pulp depends on
1-Dissociation factor(PKa) of L.A agent. 2-% of vasoconstrictor in solution. 3-Forceful injection. (1or3?)

-The major reason not to extract a mandibular 3rd molar accompanied with pericoronitis is fear of
1-Osteomyelitits. 2-Spread of infection. 3-Anesthesia won't work. 4-Bacteremia.

-A bitewing radiograph in a mixed dentition, should include what surfaces
1-Mesial of 1st primary molar to distal of 1st permanent molar. 2-Distal of canine to mesial of 1st permanent molar. 3-Mesial of 1st primary molar to mesial of 1st permanent molar. 4-Distal of canine to distal of 1st permanent molar.

-The appliance that is going to interfere the most with speech is
A-anterior & posterior palatal bar. B-Thick narrow palatal plate. C-Narrow horse-shoe shaped appliance(used when there is a palatal torus). D-Thin broad palatal strap.

-In periapical films, the coronoid process can obliterate the apices of
A- Maxillary 3rd molars. B- Maxillary 2nd molars. C- Mandibular 3rd molars. D- Mand 2nd molars.

-Difference between Osteosarcoma & fibrous dysplasia is that osteosarcoma
A- can invade soft tissue. B- is an ill-defined radiolucency. C- is Malignant. D- difficult to irradiate(?) from normal bone.

-In bruxism, what is in action
1- A Delta & C fibers. 2- Sphenopalatine ganglion. 3- Basilar ganglion. 4- ?
(some people think it is A delta & C fibers)

-Chronic Nasal constriction with resultant mouth breathing, may cause
A- Increase in lower facial height. B- Increase in lower facial height & maxillary constriction. C- Increase in lower facial height, maxillary constriction & crowding of lower anterior teeth. D- Difficult to evaluate.

-Which is more apt to cause displacement of neighboring teeth
A- Dentigerous cyst. B- periapical Abscess. C- Radicular cyst. D- Lateral periodontal cyst. E-Cementoma.

-Infrabony pocket occurs mostly in
A- Cancellous bone. B- Cortical bone. C- Interseptal bone. D- Bundle bone.

-Primary reason for mandibular growth: MULTIPLE ANSWERS
A-Genetic. B-epigenetic. C- Functional. D- Environmental.
(epigenetic: refers to inheritable information that is encoded by modifications of the genome and chromatin components that affects gene expression. It does not include changes in the base sequence of DNA)

-Fracture of mandible during normal mustication; most probably due to:
A- Large intraosseous lesion. B- Osteoporosis. C- An impacted tooth along the lower border.

-Cementum & dentine blunting (resorption at apex) with non-vital tooth; is what type of resorption
1-surface. 2-Replacement. 3-inflammatory. 4-intraradicular.

-1-Accessory canals are most probably found in the
1-cervical 3rd. 2-middle 3rd. 3-apical 3rd of the root.

-When placing a full crown on a tooth with large MOD amalgam restoration; you place the finishing line
a-on amalgam. b-1mm gingival to amalgam. c-2mm gingival to amalgam. d-same level as amalgam ends.

-A radiolucent multilocular expansile lesion in the mandible which shows benign giant cells and … and fibers; what should you do
1-order further microscopic examination. 2-examine blood calcium. 3-prescribe antibiotic therapy.

-Of the following; The most important diagnostic element to assess perio status of a patient is
1-vitality tests. 2-radiograph appearance. 3-depth of pockets. 4-mobility of tooth

-In gingivitis predominant bacteria is
1- gr+. 2-gr-. 3-diplococi. 4-spirochetes

-Which indicate cracked tooth
1-Periapical radiolucency. 2-pain upon pressure. 3-negative vitality tests. 4-hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli

-Which of the following will increase the chance of a replantation of an avulsed tooth
1-placing tooth into mouth. 2-placing tooth into physiologic saline water. 3-placing tooth into fluoride. 4-waiting till next day.

-Most common cause of class II division 1 malocclusion
1- Maxillary prognathism. 2-maxillary retrognathism. 3-mandibular prognathism. 4-mandibular retrognathism.

-which of the following is most resistant to antibiotics
1)streptococci. 2)lactobaclilli. 3)staphylococci
(staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pneumococcus are the most antibiotic resistant).

-a patient with severe bleeding disorder; which of the following holds the least risk:
1)injection of inf.alv.nerve block. 2)a subgingival restoration. 3)scalling supragingivally

-After relining mandibular bi-distal extension RPD, the occlusal rests are seated but the acrylic base doesn't fit in place. Most probably due to
1)resorption of alveolar ridge. 2)shrinkage of denture base material.

-causes of composite polymerization shrinkage during setting
1-Evaporation of the by-product. 2-Evaporation of unreacted monomer. 3-temp change occurring during polymerization. 4-replacment of 1ry bonds by 2ry bonds (or 2ry bonds by 1ry bonds, can't remember)

-which has better prognosis regarding furcation involvement
1) wide furcation. 2)narrow furcation.

-a patient whose mandible deviates to left upon opening causing a unilateral crossbite; when he closes in centric he presents bilateral cross bite and the midline is concomitant. This patient has
1)two separate occlusions. 2)true unilateral crossbite. 3)hypertrophy of one of the TMJs. 4)occlusal interference.

-FAILURE after treatment of furcations is indicated by
1)widening of furcation. 2)narrowing of furcation. 3)formation of furcation ride(?).

-Which of the following is not associated with Infectious mononucleosis (MULTIPLE ANSWERS??)
1-Pharyngitis. 2-Lymphadenopathy. 3-Peteciae. 4-Gingival enlargement. 5-Fatigue.

-The most important mechanical property for a PFM long & narrow span brige is
1-elastic modulus. 2-P.L. 3-Toughness. 4-Tensile strength.
(elastic modulus is most important if I fear deformation as high elastic modulus will mean high stresses are needed to produce a specific strain, while Toughness is most important if I fear fracture as high toughness means high energy is needed to produce fracture)

-major vascular supply of buccal gingiva is thru
1)intra-alveolar vessels. 2)Superficial vessels. 3)PDL vessels.

-34 yr old male with night sweats, weight loss, male anorexia, low grade fever. Clinical exam shows nodular, ulcerated lesion on the palate. This is mostly
1-Viral hepatitis. 2-infectious mononucleosis. 3-tuberculosis. 4-actinomycosis.

-27 yrs old complains of burning mouth, fatigue, palpitation, lack of energy. Clinical exam shows angular cheilitis & atrophic glossitis. Most probable diagnosis is
1-Iron deficiency. 2-Crohn's disease. 3-Chronic lymphocytic leukemia. 4-plummer Vinson syndrome

-Patient with anaphylactic shock is given epinephrine because it (MULTIPLE ANSWERS?)
1-reduces heart rate. 2-relaxe respiratory muscle. 3-???. 4-causes vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscles.
acute localized periodontal abcess treatment
1-root planning & scaling. 2-occlusion adjustment. 3-antibiotics. 4-analgesic.

-Lipid-soluble vitamin MULTIPLE ANSWERS
1-Vitamin E:antioxidant. 2-Vitamin C:healing&collagen formation. 3-Vitamin K:prothrombin formation. 4-Vitamin A:integrity & proliferation of mucosal tissues.

-Primary radiograph for endo is to determine
1-working length. 2-shape of chamber & canals.

You know, of course, the source of these Qs..Now act quickly..Find answers..
 
The most likely cause of tooth loss following a
tunneling procedure to provide complete access
for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is
A. root caries.
B. root sensitivity.
C. pulpal involvement.
D. recurrent pocketing.

The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven



Which of the following is/are clinical signs of
gingivitis?
1. Loss of stippling.
2. Gingival hyperplasia.
3. Decreased pocket depth.
4. Bleeding on probing.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing
ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient with no
fever and no lymphadenopathy is
1. periodontal debridement.
2. antibiotic therapy.
3. oral hygiene instruction.
4. topical steroid therapy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


Which of the following microorganisms are most
frequently found in infected root canals?
A. Streptococcus viridans.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D. Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.


Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Which of the following is/are associated with an
unerupted tooth?
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor.
4. Cementoblastoma.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


The roots of primary molars in the absence of their
permanent successors
1. sometimes are partially resorbed and
become ankylosed.
2. may remain for years with no significant
resorption.
3. may remain for years partially resorbed.
4. are always resorbed.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


In children, the most common cause of a fistula is
a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.

The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion
of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in
deciduous teeth should
A. be parallel to each other.
B. diverge toward the occlusal surface.
C. converge toward the occlusal surface.
D. not follow the direction of the enamel
rods.

Bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
4. platelet count.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


A 57 year old man received 10mg of diazepam
intravenously. He becomes unresponsive to verbal
stimuli, and his respirations are depressed to
10 per minute. Appropriate treatment is to
A. administer ephedrine.
B. observe the patient.
C. force the patient to drink coffee.
D. support respiration with oxygen.

The gingival margin of the preparation for a full
crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown
that satisfies the requirements for retention and
resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally.
D. at the cemento-enamel junction.
E. at the gingival margin.


A maxillary complete denture exhibits more
retention and stability than a mandibular one
because it
1. covers a greater area.
2. incorporates a posterior palatal seal.
3. is not subject to as much muscular
displacement.
4. is completely surrounded by soft tissue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

What clinical evidence would support a diagnosis
of acute dento-alveolar abscess?
1. A negative reaction to the electric vitality
tester.
2. A positive reaction of short duration to
cold.
3. A positive reaction to percussion.
4. Presence of a draining fistula.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
The most likely cause of tooth loss following a
tunneling procedure to provide complete access
for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is
A. root caries.
B. root sensitivity.
C. pulpal involvement.
D. recurrent pocketing.

The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.

E. has a tightly woven



Which of the following is/are clinical signs of
gingivitis?
1. Loss of stippling.
2. Gingival hyperplasia.
3. Decreased pocket depth.
4. Bleeding on probing.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing
ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient with no
fever and no lymphadenopathy is
1. periodontal debridement.
2. antibiotic therapy.
3. oral hygiene instruction.
4. topical steroid therapy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


Which of the following microorganisms are most
frequently found in infected root canals?
A. Streptococcus viridans.
B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D. Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.


Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Which of the following is/are associated with an
unerupted tooth?
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor.
4. Cementoblastoma.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


The roots of primary molars in the absence of their
permanent successors
1. sometimes are partially resorbed and
become ankylosed.
2. may remain for years with no significant
resorption.
3. may remain for years partially resorbed.
4. are always resorbed.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


In children, the most common cause of a fistula is
a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.

The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion
of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in
deciduous teeth should
A. be parallel to each other.
B. diverge toward the occlusal surface.
C. converge toward the occlusal surface.
D. not follow the direction of the enamel
rods.

Bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
4. platelet count.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


A 57 year old man received 10mg of diazepam
intravenously. He becomes unresponsive to verbal
stimuli, and his respirations are depressed to
10 per minute. Appropriate treatment is to
A. administer ephedrine.
B. observe the patient.
C. force the patient to drink coffee.
D. support respiration with oxygen.

The gingival margin of the preparation for a full
crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown
that satisfies the requirements for retention and
resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally.
D. at the cemento-enamel junction.
E. at the gingival margin.


A maxillary complete denture exhibits more
retention and stability than a mandibular one
because it
1. covers a greater area.
2. incorporates a posterior palatal seal.
3. is not subject to as much muscular
displacement.
4. is completely surrounded by soft tissue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

What clinical evidence would support a diagnosis
of acute dento-alveolar abscess?
1. A negative reaction to the electric vitality
tester.
2. A positive reaction of short duration to
cold.
3. A positive reaction to percussion.
4. Presence of a draining fistula.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Correct me if I am wrong. Good luck to everybody appearing for EE this Saturday.
 
[/COLOR]
The most likely cause of tooth loss following a
tunneling procedure to provide complete access
for a mandibular Class III furcation involvement is
A. root caries.
B. root sensitivity.
C. pulpal involvement.
D. recurrent pocketing.

The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven



Which of the following is/are clinical signs of
gingivitis?
1. Loss of stippling.
2. Gingival hyperplasia.
3. Decreased pocket depth.
4. Bleeding on probing.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


The most appropriate treatment of necrotizing
ulcerative periodontitis (NUP) in a patient with no
fever and no lymphadenopathy is
1. periodontal debridement.
2. antibiotic therapy.
3. oral hygiene instruction.
4. topical steroid therapy.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


Which of the following microorganisms are most
frequently found in infected root canals?
A. Streptococcus viridans.B. Staphylococcus aureus.
C. Lactobacilli.
D. Enterococci.
E. Staphylococcus albus.


Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Which of the following is/are associated with an
unerupted tooth?
1. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumor.
2. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
3. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor.
4. Cementoblastoma.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


The roots of primary molars in the absence of their
permanent successors
1. sometimes are partially resorbed and
become ankylosed.
2. may remain for years with no significant
resorption.
3. may remain for years partially resorbed.
4. are always resorbed.
A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


In children, the most common cause of a fistula is
a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.

The facial and lingual walls of the occlusal portion
of a Class II cavity preparation for an amalgam in
deciduous teeth should
A. be parallel to each other.
B. diverge toward the occlusal surface.
C. converge toward the occlusal surface.
D. not follow the direction of the enamel
rods.

Bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. white blood cell count.
2. hemoglobin level.
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
4. platelet count.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.


A 57 year old man received 10mg of diazepam
intravenously. He becomes unresponsive to verbal
stimuli, and his respirations are depressed to
10 per minute. Appropriate treatment is to
A. administer ephedrine.
B. observe the patient.
C. force the patient to drink coffee.
D. support respiration with oxygen.
The gingival margin of the preparation for a full
crown on a posterior tooth, with a clinical crown
that satisfies the requirements for retention and
resistance, should be placed
A. 0.5mm subgingivally.
B. on the enamel.
C. at least 1mm supragingivally.
D. at the cemento-enamel junction.
E. at the gingival margin.


A maxillary complete denture exhibits more
retention and stability than a mandibular one
because it
1. covers a greater area.
2. incorporates a posterior palatal seal.
3. is not subject to as much muscular
displacement.
4. is completely surrounded by soft tissue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

What clinical evidence would support a diagnosis
of acute dento-alveolar abscess?
1. A negative reaction to the electric vitality
tester.
2. A positive reaction of short duration to
cold.
3. A positive reaction to percussion.
4. Presence of a draining fistula.
A. (1) (2) (3)B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
 
[/COLOR]
Here is some food for your thought:
-Exfoliative cytology will help diagnose
1-Candidiasis. 2-Herpetic gingivostomatitis. 3-shingles. 4-cold sores. 5-chiken pox. 6-hairy leukoplakia.

-Loss of proximal contact in class II amalgam is most probably due to MUTLIPLE ANSWERS
1-over-tightened matrix. 2-improperly placed wedge. 3-insuffecient condensation. 4-simultaneously placed restorations in adjacent teeth.

-A child with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis, the most appropriate treatment is
1-Topical antiviral. 2-Topical antifungal. 3-Antibiotic. 4-Analgesic & hydration management.
-The effect of local anesthesia injected directly (thru access cavity) into a very inflamed pulp depends on
1-Dissociation factor(PKa) of L.A agent. 2-% of vasoconstrictor in solution. 3-Forceful injection. (1or3?)

-The major reason not to extract a mandibular 3rd molar accompanied with pericoronitis is fear of
1-Osteomyelitits. 2-Spread of infection. 3-Anesthesia won’t work. 4-Bacteremia.

-A bitewing radiograph in a mixed dentition, should include what surfaces
1-Mesial of 1st primary molar to distal of 1st permanent molar. 2-Distal of canine to mesial of 1st permanent molar. 3-Mesial of 1st primary molar to mesial of 1st permanent molar. 4-Distal of canine to distal of 1st permanent molar.

-The appliance that is going to interfere the most with speech is
A-anterior & posterior palatal bar. B-Thick narrow palatal plate. C-Narrow horse-shoe shaped appliance(used when there is a palatal torus). D-Thin broad palatal strap.

-In periapical films, the coronoid process can obliterate the apices of
A- Maxillary 3rd molars. B- Maxillary 2nd molars. C- Mandibular 3rd molars. D- Mand 2nd molars.

-Difference between Osteosarcoma & fibrous dysplasia is that osteosarcoma
A- can invade soft tissue. B- is an ill-defined radiolucency. C- is Malignant. D- difficult to irradiate(?) from normal bone.

-In bruxism, what is in action
1- A Delta & C fibers. 2- Sphenopalatine ganglion. 3- Basilar ganglion. 4- ?
(some people think it is A delta & C fibers)

-Chronic Nasal constriction with resultant mouth breathing, may cause
A- Increase in lower facial height. B- Increase in lower facial height & maxillary constriction. C- Increase in lower facial height, maxillary constriction & crowding of lower anterior teeth. D- Difficult to evaluate.

-Which is more apt to cause displacement of neighboring teeth
A- Dentigerous cyst. B- periapical Abscess. C- Radicular cyst. D- Lateral periodontal cyst. E-Cementoma.

-Infrabony pocket occurs mostly in
A- Cancellous bone. B- Cortical bone. C- Interseptal bone. D- Bundle bone.

-Primary reason for mandibular growth: MULTIPLE ANSWERS
A-Genetic. B-epigenetic. C- Functional. D- Environmental.
(epigenetic: refers to inheritable information that is encoded by modifications of the genome and chromatin components that affects gene expression. It does not include changes in the base sequence of DNA)

-Fracture of mandible during normal mustication; most probably due to:
A- Large intraosseous lesion. B- Osteoporosis. C- An impacted tooth along the lower border.

-Cementum & dentine blunting (resorption at apex) with non-vital tooth; is what type of resorption
1-surface. 2-Replacement. 3-inflammatory. 4-intraradicular.

-1-Accessory canals are most probably found in the
1-cervical 3rd. 2-middle 3rd. 3-apical 3rd of the root.

-When placing a full crown on a tooth with large MOD amalgam restoration; you place the finishing line
a-on amalgam. b-1mm gingival to amalgam. c-2mm gingival to amalgam. d-same level as amalgam ends.

-A radiolucent multilocular expansile lesion in the mandible which shows benign giant cells and … and fibers; what should you do
1-order further microscopic examination. 2-examine blood calcium. 3-prescribe antibiotic therapy.

-Of the following; The most important diagnostic element to assess perio status of a patient is
1-vitality tests. 2-radiograph appearance. 3-depth of pockets. 4-mobility of tooth

-In gingivitis predominant bacteria is
1- gr+. 2-gr-. 3-diplococi. 4-spirochetes

-Which indicate cracked tooth
1-Periapical radiolucency. 2-pain upon pressure. 3-negative vitality tests. 4-hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli

-Which of the following will increase the chance of a replantation of an avulsed tooth
1-placing tooth into mouth. 2-placing tooth into physiologic saline water. 3-placing tooth into fluoride. 4-waiting till next day.

-Most common cause of class II division 1 malocclusion
1- Maxillary prognathism. 2-maxillary retrognathism. 3-mandibular prognathism. 4-mandibular retrognathism.

-which of the following is most resistant to antibiotics
1)streptococci. 2)lactobaclilli. 3)staphylococci(staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pneumococcus are the most antibiotic resistant).

-a patient with severe bleeding disorder; which of the following holds the least risk:
1)injection of inf.alv.nerve block. 2)a subgingival restoration. 3)scalling supragingivally

-After relining mandibular bi-distal extension RPD, the occlusal rests are seated but the acrylic base doesn’t fit in place. Most probably due to
1)resorption of alveolar ridge. 2)shrinkage of denture base
-causes of composite polymerization shrinkage during setting
1-Evaporation of the by-product. 2-Evaporation of unreacted monomer. 3-temp change occurring during polymerization. 4-replacment of 1ry bonds by 2ry bonds (or 2ry bonds by 1ry bonds, can't remember)

-which has better prognosis regarding furcation involvement
1) wide furcation. 2)narrow furcation.

-a patient whose mandible deviates to left upon opening causing a unilateral crossbite; when he closes in centric he presents bilateral cross bite and the midline is concomitant. This patient has
1)two separate occlusions. 2)true unilateral crossbite. 3)hypertrophy of one of the TMJs. 4)occlusal interference.

-FAILURE after treatment of furcations is indicated by
1)widening of furcation. 2)narrowing of furcation. 3)formation of furcation ride(?).
??????????
-Which of the following is not associated with Infectious mononucleosis (MULTIPLE ANSWERS??)
1-Pharyngitis. 2-Lymphadenopathy. 3-Peteciae. 4-Gingival enlargement. 5-Fatigue.

-The most important mechanical property for a PFM long & narrow span brige is
1-elastic modulus. 2-P.L. 3-Toughness. 4-Tensile strength.
(elastic modulus is most important if I fear deformation as high elastic modulus will mean high stresses are needed to produce a specific strain, while Toughness is most important if I fear fracture as high toughness means high energy is needed to produce fracture)

-major vascular supply of buccal gingiva is thru
1)intra-alveolar vessels. 2)Superficial vessels. 3)PDL vessels.

-34 yr old male with night sweats, weight loss, male anorexia, low grade fever. Clinical exam shows nodular, ulcerated lesion on the palate. This is mostly
1-Viral hepatitis. 2-infectious mononucleosis. 3-tuberculosis. 4-actinomycosis.

-27 yrs old complains of burning mouth, fatigue, palpitation, lack of energy. Clinical exam shows angular cheilitis & atrophic glossitis. Most probable diagnosis is
1-Iron deficiency. 2-Crohn's disease. 3-Chronic lymphocytic leukemia. 4-[plummer Vinson syndrome[/

-Patient with anaphylactic shock is given epinephrine because it (MULTIPLE ANSWERS?)
1-reduces heart rate. 2-relaxe respiratory muscle. 3-???. 4-causes vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscles.
acute localized periodontal abcess treatment
1-root planning & scaling. 2-occlusion adjustment. 3-antibiotics. 4-analgesic.

-Lipid-soluble vitamin MULTIPLE ANSWERS
1-Vitamin E:antioxidant. 2-Vitamin C:healing&collagen formation. 3-Vitamin K:prothrombin formation. 4-Vitamin A:integrity & proliferation of mucosal tissues.

-Primary radiograph for endo is to determine
1-working length. 2-shape of chamber & canals.

You know, of course, the source of these Qs..Now act quickly..Find answers..
 
MY answers... :D

Here is some food for your thought:
-Exfoliative cytology will help diagnose
1-Candidiasis. 2-Herpetic gingivostomatitis. 3-shingles. 4-cold sores. 5-chiken pox. 6-hairy leukoplakia.

-Loss of proximal contact in class II amalgam is most probably due to MUTLIPLE ANSWERS
1-over-tightened matrix. 2-improperly placed wedge. 3-insuffecient condensation. 4-simultaneously placed restorations in adjacent teeth.

-A child with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis, the most appropriate treatment is
1-Topical antiviral. 2-Topical antifungal. 3-Antibiotic. 4-Analgesic & hydration management.

-The effect of local anesthesia injected directly (thru access cavity) into a very inflamed pulp depends on
1-Dissociation factor(PKa) of L.A agent. 2-% of vasoconstrictor in solution. 3-Forceful injection. (1or3?)

-The major reason not to extract a mandibular 3rd molar accompanied with pericoronitis is fear of
1-Osteomyelitits. 2-Spread of infection. 3-Anesthesia won’t work. 4-Bacteremia.

-A bitewing radiograph in a mixed dentition, should include what surfaces
1-Mesial of 1st primary molar to distal of 1st permanent molar. 2-Distal of canine to mesial of 1st permanent molar. 3-Mesial of 1st primary molar to mesial of 1st permanent molar. 4-Distal of canine to distal of 1st permanent molar.

-The appliance that is going to interfere the most with speech is
A-anterior & posterior palatal bar. B-Thick narrow palatal plate. C-Narrow horse-shoe shaped appliance(used when there is a palatal torus). D-Thin broad palatal strap.

-In periapical films, the coronoid process can obliterate the apices of
A- Maxillary 3rd molars. B- Maxillary 2nd molars. C- Mandibular 3rd molars. D- Mand 2nd molars.

-Difference between Osteosarcoma & fibrous dysplasia is that osteosarcoma
A- can invade soft tissue. B- is an ill-defined radiolucency. C- is Malignant. D- difficult to irradiate(?) from normal bone.

-In bruxism, what is in action
1- A Delta & C fibers. 2- Sphenopalatine ganglion. 3- Basilar ganglion. 4- ?
(some people think it is A delta & C fibers)

-Chronic Nasal constriction with resultant mouth breathing, may cause
A- Increase in lower facial height. B- Increase in lower facial height & maxillary constriction. C- Increase in lower facial height, maxillary constriction & crowding of lower anterior teeth. D- Difficult to evaluate.

-Which is more apt to cause displacement of neighboring teeth
A- Dentigerous cyst. B- periapical Abscess. C- Radicular cyst. D- Lateral periodontal cyst. E-Cementoma.

-Infrabony pocket occurs mostly in
A- Cancellous bone. B- Cortical bone. C- Interseptal bone. D- Bundle bone.

-Primary reason for mandibular growth: MULTIPLE ANSWERS
A-Genetic. B-epigenetic. C- Functional. D- Environmental.
(epigenetic: refers to inheritable information that is encoded by modifications of the genome and chromatin components that affects gene expression. It does not include changes in the base sequence of DNA)

-Fracture of mandible during normal mustication; most probably due to:
A- Large intraosseous lesion. B- Osteoporosis. C- An impacted tooth along the lower border.

-Cementum & dentine blunting (resorption at apex) with non-vital tooth; is what type of resorption
1-surface. 2-Replacement. 3-inflammatory. 4-intraradicular.

-1-Accessory canals are most probably found in the
1-cervical 3rd. 2-middle 3rd. 3-apical 3rd of the root.

-When placing a full crown on a tooth with large MOD amalgam restoration; you place the finishing line
a-on amalgam. b-1mm gingival to amalgam. c-2mm gingival to amalgam. d-same level as amalgam ends.

-A radiolucent multilocular expansile lesion in the mandible which shows benign giant cells and … and fibers; what should you do
1-order further microscopic examination. 2-examine blood calcium. 3-prescribe antibiotic therapy.

-Of the following; The most important diagnostic element to assess perio status of a patient is
1-vitality tests. 2-radiograph appearance. 3-depth of pockets. 4-mobility of tooth

-In gingivitis predominant bacteria is
1- gr+. 2-gr-. 3-diplococi. 4-spirochetes

-Which indicate cracked tooth
1-Periapical radiolucency. 2-pain upon pressure. 3-negative vitality tests. 4-hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli

-Which of the following will increase the chance of a replantation of an avulsed tooth
1-placing tooth into mouth. 2-placing tooth into physiologic saline water. 3-placing tooth into fluoride. 4-waiting till next day.

-Most common cause of class II division 1 malocclusion
1- Maxillary prognathism. 2-maxillary retrognathism. 3-mandibular prognathism. 4-mandibular retrognathism.

-which of the following is most resistant to antibiotics
1)streptococci. 2)lactobaclilli. 3)staphylococci
(staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pneumococcus are the most antibiotic resistant).

-a patient with severe bleeding disorder; which of the following holds the least risk:
1)injection of inf.alv.nerve block. 2)a subgingival restoration. 3)scalling supragingivally

-After relining mandibular bi-distal extension RPD, the occlusal rests are seated but the acrylic base doesn’t fit in place. Most probably due to
1)resorption of alveolar ridge. 2)shrinkage of denture base material.

-causes of composite polymerization shrinkage during setting
1-Evaporation of the by-product. 2-Evaporation of unreacted monomer. 3-temp change occurring during polymerization. 4-replacment of 1ry bonds by 2ry bonds (or 2ry bonds by 1ry bonds, can't remember)

-which has better prognosis regarding furcation involvement
1) wide furcation. 2)narrow furcation.

-a patient whose mandible deviates to left upon opening causing a unilateral crossbite; when he closes in centric he presents bilateral cross bite and the midline is concomitant. This patient has
1)two separate occlusions. 2)true unilateral crossbite. 3)hypertrophy of one of the TMJs. 4)occlusal interference.

-FAILURE after treatment of furcations is indicated by
1)widening of furcation. 2)narrowing of furcation. 3)formation of furcation ride(?).

-Which of the following is not associated with Infectious mononucleosis (MULTIPLE ANSWERS??)
1-Pharyngitis. 2-Lymphadenopathy. 3-Peteciae. 4-Gingival enlargement. 5-Fatigue.

-The most important mechanical property for a PFM long & narrow span brige is
1-elastic modulus. 2-P.L. 3-Toughness. 4-Tensile strength.
(elastic modulus is most important if I fear deformation as high elastic modulus will mean high stresses are needed to produce a specific strain, while Toughness is most important if I fear fracture as high toughness means high energy is needed to produce fracture)

-major vascular supply of buccal gingiva is thru
1)intra-alveolar vessels. 2)Superficial vessels. 3)PDL vessels.

-34 yr old male with night sweats, weight loss, male anorexia, low grade fever. Clinical exam shows nodular, ulcerated lesion on the palate. This is mostly
1-Viral hepatitis. 2-infectious mononucleosis. 3-tuberculosis. 4-actinomycosis.

-27 yrs old complains of burning mouth, fatigue, palpitation, lack of energy. Clinical exam shows angular cheilitis & atrophic glossitis. Most probable diagnosis is
1-Iron deficiency. 2-Crohn's disease. 3-Chronic lymphocytic leukemia. 4-plummer Vinson syndrome

-Patient with anaphylactic shock is given epinephrine because it (MULTIPLE ANSWERS?)
1-reduces heart rate. 2-relaxe respiratory muscle. 3-???. 4-causes vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscles.
acute localized periodontal abcess treatment
1-root planning & scaling. 2-occlusion adjustment. 3-antibiotics. 4-analgesic.

-Lipid-soluble vitamin MULTIPLE ANSWERS
1-Vitamin E:antioxidant. 2-Vitamin C:healing&collagen formation. 3-Vitamin K:prothrombin formation. 4-Vitamin A:integrity & proliferation of mucosal tissues.

-Primary radiograph for endo is to determine
1-working length. 2-shape of chamber & canals.

You know, of course, the source of these Qs..Now act quickly..Find answers..

my answers for those are:-Exfoliative cytology will help diagnose
1-Candidiasis. *
2-Herpetic gingivostomatitis.
3-shingles.
4-cold sores.
5-chiken pox.
6-hairy leukoplakia.

-Loss of proximal contact in class II amalgam is most probably due to MUTLIPLE ANSWERS
1-over-tightened matrix. *
2-improperly placed wedge. *
3-insuffecient condensation. *
4-simultaneously placed restorations in adjacent teeth.

-A child with acute herpetic gingivostomatitis, the most appropriate treatment is
1-Topical antiviral.
2-Topical antifungal.
3-Antibiotic.
4-Analgesic & hydration management. *

-The effect of local anesthesia injected directly (thru access cavity) into a very inflamed pulp depends on
1-Dissociation factor(PKa) of L.A agent. *
2-% of vasoconstrictor in solution.
3-Forceful injection. (1or3?)

-The major reason not to extract a mandibular 3rd molar accompanied with pericoronitis is fear of
1-Osteomyelitits.
2-Spread of infection.
3-Anesthesia won’t work. *
4-Bacteremia.

-A bitewing radiograph in a mixed dentition, should include what surfaces
1-Mesial of 1st primary molar to distal of 1st permanent molar.
2-Distal of canine to mesial of 1st permanent molar.
3-Mesial of 1st primary molar to mesial of 1st permanent molar.
4-Distal of canine to distal of 1st permanent molar.

-The appliance that is going to interfere the most with speech is
A-anterior & posterior palatal bar.
B-Thick narrow palatal plate. *
C-Narrow horse-shoe shaped appliance(used when there is a palatal torus).
D-Thin broad palatal strap.

-In periapical films, the coronoid process can obliterate the apices of
A- Maxillary 3rd molars.
B- Maxillary 2nd molars. *
C- Mandibular 3rd molars.
D- Mand 2nd molars.

-Difference between Osteosarcoma & fibrous dysplasia is that osteosarcoma
A- can invade soft tissue.
B- is an ill-defined radiolucency.
C- is Malignant.
D- difficult to irradiate(?) from normal bone.

-In bruxism, what is in action
1- A Delta & C fibers.*
2- Sphenopalatine ganglion.
3- Basilar ganglion. 4- ?
(some people think it is A delta & C fibers)

-Chronic Nasal constriction with resultant mouth breathing, may cause
A- Increase in lower facial height.
B- Increase in lower facial height & maxillary constriction.
C- Increase in lower facial height, maxillary constriction & crowding of lower anterior teeth.
D- Difficult to evaluate.

-Which is more apt to cause displacement of neighboring teeth
A- Dentigerous cyst.
B- periapical Abscess.
C- Radicular cyst.
D- Lateral periodontal cyst.
E-Cementoma.

-Infrabony pocket occurs mostly in
A- Cancellous bone.
B- Cortical bone.
C- Interseptal bone. *
D- Bundle bone.

-Primary reason for mandibular growth: MULTIPLE ANSWERS
A-Genetic. *
B-epigenetic. *
C- Functional. *
D- Environmental.

(epigenetic: refers to inheritable information that is encoded by modifications of the genome and chromatin components that affects gene expression. It does not include changes in the base sequence of DNA)

-Fracture of mandible during normal mustication; most probably due to:
A- Large intraosseous lesion. (cortical bone usually protects from fracture)
B- Osteoporosis.* (called pathological fractures)
C- An impacted tooth along the lower border.

-Cementum & dentine blunting (resorption at apex) with non-vital tooth; is what type of resorption
1-surface.
2-Replacement.
3-inflammatory. *
4-intraradicular.

-1-Accessory canals are most probably found in the
1-cervical 3rd.
2-middle 3rd.
3-apical 3rd of the root.* I think

-When placing a full crown on a tooth with large MOD amalgam restoration; you place the finishing line
a-on amalgam.
b-1mm gingival to amalgam. *
c-2mm gingival to amalgam.
d-same level as amalgam ends.*

-A radiolucent multilocular expansile lesion in the mandible which shows benign giant cells and … and fibers; what should you do
1-order further microscopic examination. * this is cherubism I believe
2-examine blood calcium.
3-prescribe antibiotic therapy.

-Of the following; The most important diagnostic element to assess perio status of a patient is
1-vitality tests.
2-radiograph appearance.
3-depth of pockets. *
4-mobility of tooth

-In gingivitis predominant bacteria is
1- gr+. *
2-gr-.
3-diplococi.
4-spirochetes

-Which indicate cracked tooth
1-Periapical radiolucency.
2-pain upon pressure. *
3-negative vitality tests.
4-hypersensitivity to thermal stimuli

-Which of the following will increase the chance of a replantation of an avulsed tooth
1-placing tooth into mouth. * usually milk is the best!
2-placing tooth into physiologic saline water.
3-placing tooth into fluoride.
4-waiting till next day.

-Most common cause of class II division 1 malocclusion
1- Maxillary prognathism. *
2-maxillary retrognathism.
3-mandibular prognathism.
4-mandibular retrognathism.*

-which of the following is most resistant to antibiotics
1)streptococci.
2)lactobaclilli.
3)staphylococci* Staphylococcus Aureus became even resistant to Vancomycin
(staphylococcus aureus and streptococcus pneumococcus are the most antibiotic resistant).

-a patient with severe bleeding disorder; which of the following holds the least risk:
1)injection of inf.alv.nerve block.
2)a subgingival restoration.
3)scalling supragingivally* should not be invasive but I am not sure!

-After relining mandibular bi-distal extension RPD, the occlusal rests are seated but the acrylic base doesn’t fit in place. Most probably due to
1)resorption of alveolar ridge.
2)shrinkage of denture base material.*

-causes of composite polymerization shrinkage during setting
1-Evaporation of the by-product.
2-Evaporation of unreacted monomer.
3-temp change occurring during polymerization.
4-replacment of 1ry bonds by 2ry bonds* (or 2ry bonds by 1ry bonds, can't remember)

-which has better prognosis regarding furcation involvement
1) wide furcation. * not sure
2)narrow furcation.

-a patient whose mandible deviates to left upon opening causing a unilateral crossbite; when he closes in centric he presents bilateral cross bite and the midline is concomitant. This patient has
1)two separate occlusions.
2)true unilateral crossbite.
3)hypertrophy of one of the TMJs.*
4)occlusal interference. (affects only protrusion my guess)

-FAILURE after treatment of furcations is indicated by
1)widening of furcation.
2)narrowing of furcation.
3)formation of furcation ride(?). * I don't know but maybe

-Which of the following is not associated with Infectious mononucleosis (MULTIPLE ANSWERS??)
1-Pharyngitis. *
2-Lymphadenopathy.
3-Peteciae. *
4-Gingival enlargement. *
5-Fatigue.
am I wrong here?

-The most important mechanical property for a PFM long & narrow span brige is
1-elastic modulus. * (not flexible)
2-P.L.
3-Toughness.
4-Tensile strength.
(elastic modulus is most important if I fear deformation as high elastic modulus will mean high stresses are needed to produce a specific strain, while Toughness is most important if I fear fracture as high toughness means high energy is needed to produce fracture)

-major vascular supply of buccal gingiva is thru
1)intra-alveolar vessels.
2)Superficial vessels.*
3)PDL vessels.

-34 yr old male with night sweats, weight loss, male anorexia, low grade fever. Clinical exam shows nodular, ulcerated lesion on the palate. This is mostly
1-Viral hepatitis.
2-infectious mononucleosis.*
3-tuberculosis.
4-actinomycosis.

-27 yrs old complains of burning mouth, fatigue, palpitation, lack of energy. Clinical exam shows angular cheilitis & atrophic glossitis. Most probable diagnosis is
1-Iron deficiency. *
2-Crohn's disease.
3-Chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
4-plummer Vinson syndrome

-Patient with anaphylactic shock is given epinephrine because it (MULTIPLE ANSWERS?)
1-reduces heart rate.
2-relaxe respiratory muscle. *
3-???.
4-causes vasoconstriction of vascular smooth muscles.*

acute localized periodontal abcess treatment
1-root planning & scaling. *
2-occlusion adjustment.
3-antibiotics.
4-analgesic.

-Lipid-soluble vitamin MULTIPLE ANSWERS
1-Vitamin E:antioxidant. *
2-Vitamin C:healing&collagen formation.
3-Vitamin Krothrombin formation. *
4-Vitamin A:integrity & proliferation of mucosal tissues.*
the letters: EDAK!


-Primary radiograph for endo is to determine
1-working length.
2-shape of chamber & canals.*



I am not 100% sure about some answers though!

Good luck everyone, and if there are any more remembered questions... hit me :love:
 
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