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So I got into a discussion with a few of my attendings the other day about a patient and there were some differences of opinion.
85-year-old male brought in by EMS unresponsive in his home, intubated in the field. In the ED patient hypotensive and tachycardic to 150. Patient also febrile. Initial labs show a white count of 29 with significant bandemia. We get a line in him, start fluid resuscitation and antibiotics. Patients pressure still sucks. Heart rate gradually goes up to 180s, occasionally 190s, appears regular on 12 lead. Do a bedside echo, the heart itself looks a little globally hypo kinetic but overall seems to be ok.
I end up starting the patient on levophed, but then I pretty much switch over to phenylephrine because I didn't want to jack the heart rate up further. I ended up getting a decent blood pressure with him and he went up to the unit. From what I understand they still haven't found a particular source, just that there's gram-positive's in his blood. My question is, in talking with others after-the-fact I had one attending who said that due to this patient's age he could not possibly have mounted a sinus tachycardia with that rate and thus I should have cardioverted the patient on that basis. Another one said no the rhythm with sinus, no reason to cardiovert, the high heart rate was due to sepsis. What are your guys thoughts on this?
85-year-old male brought in by EMS unresponsive in his home, intubated in the field. In the ED patient hypotensive and tachycardic to 150. Patient also febrile. Initial labs show a white count of 29 with significant bandemia. We get a line in him, start fluid resuscitation and antibiotics. Patients pressure still sucks. Heart rate gradually goes up to 180s, occasionally 190s, appears regular on 12 lead. Do a bedside echo, the heart itself looks a little globally hypo kinetic but overall seems to be ok.
I end up starting the patient on levophed, but then I pretty much switch over to phenylephrine because I didn't want to jack the heart rate up further. I ended up getting a decent blood pressure with him and he went up to the unit. From what I understand they still haven't found a particular source, just that there's gram-positive's in his blood. My question is, in talking with others after-the-fact I had one attending who said that due to this patient's age he could not possibly have mounted a sinus tachycardia with that rate and thus I should have cardioverted the patient on that basis. Another one said no the rhythm with sinus, no reason to cardiovert, the high heart rate was due to sepsis. What are your guys thoughts on this?