Disagreeing with a doctor

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MackandBlues

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Patient just admitted to hospital and on warfarin for afib so goal inr 2-3. Also history of intracranial bleeding. Most recent inr taken 8 hours ago is 3.8. Dr orders full dose heparin drip. Warfarin on hold. Pharmacist refuses to verify the heparin order but dr insists their attending wants it. Dr talks to manager. Manager agrees with pharmacist rational but says if dr insists then can't refuse to give the medication and just to document. What about legal ramifications? Pharmacist knowingly dispensed a medication that the patient should absolutely not be on and they are ok legally?

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It's the pharmacist's license. A refusal is a refusal. Part of pharmacy is being a check and balance and in a case where a pharmacist believes the medication will be harmful and will not have benefit they can refuse to fill. I've known several pharmacists that after talking to the physician refused to fill dangerous prescriptions when they refused to change.
 
Patient just admitted to hospital and on warfarin for afib so goal inr 2-3. Also history of intracranial bleeding. Most recent inr taken 8 hours ago is 3.8. Dr orders full dose heparin drip. Warfarin on hold. Pharmacist refuses to verify the heparin order but dr insists their attending wants it. Dr talks to manager. Manager agrees with pharmacist rational but says if dr insists then can't refuse to give the medication and just to document. What about legal ramifications? Pharmacist knowingly dispensed a medication that the patient should absolutely not be on and they are ok legally?
Many times there are other things going on that we just don't know about. This seems like a clear case, but holding the coumadin for even a dose and drop the inr substantially in some pts. In that case, you risk the other option. The key here is documentation. If you have clearly called and documented your recommendation than that should hold in the court of law.
 
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What is the indication for heparin?
 
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3.8 is not that high of an INR. I would have verified that order as long as they were holding warfarin doses. maybe would have recommend holding the inital heparin bolus d/t history of bleed And an INR of 3.8.
I disagree, why should you double anticoagulate the patient? The most recent inr was only 8 hours ago. The drip should be started only when the inr is below 2.
 
My original question is can a pharmacist refuse to dispense a medication even if the doctor insists?
 
I'm an MD. We're likely missing part of the story. Why is this person admitted? Are they undergoing a procedure?
So? If the pharmacist believes the medication will harm the patient using their professional judgment, can they refuse to give the medication?
 
Your professional judgement is limited by lack of information about the overarching plan.
So you think it's ok to give a heparin drip when a patient's INR is 3.8? Why do you want to doubly anticoagulate the patient? You start heparin drips when the INR is below 2 if the indication is afib and the warfarin is on hold.
 
Your professional judgement is limited by lack of information about the overarching plan.
You are not answering the question and it doesn't apply to you anyways since you are a doctor. I'm asking about a pharmacist's license and responsibility. Unless you happen to be PharmD, MD?
 
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So you think it's ok to give a heparin drip when a patient's INR is 3.8? Why do you want to doubly anticoagulate the patient? You start heparin drips when the INR is below 2 if the indication is afib and the warfarin is on hold.
Again, you have two data points (INR and Heparin order) and haven't a clue what they are doing clinically. I would be asking many more questions before being an obstruction and digging in for a fight. Are they planning on giving FFP and heparin to prepare for a procedure? Why are they hospitalized?
 
I have been told that even if you document you can still be held liable, especially if it's obviously harmful. I would agree that more information should be known though, the pharmacist should speak directly to the prescriber, review chart info and all that good stuff before outright refusing.
 
Again, you have two data points (INR and Heparin order) and haven't a clue what they are doing clinically. I would be asking many more questions before being an obstruction and digging in for a fight. Are they planning on giving FFP and heparin to prepare for a procedure? Why are they hospitalized?

admitted for a procedure but resident doesnt know when it will happen when asked. Only plan is to hold warfarin and to cover the patient with heparin. No FFP or vitamin k planned.
 
Our institution has an escalation protocol - your next step is to speak to the senior resident and attending if you are uncomfortable. Usually this will solve the problem. Rarely it goes beyond this.


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For this situation you say "absolutely should not be on" and I think that this is the essential point. I don't think all of us would agree that this is the kind of situation where you can be absolutely sure that your decision to not give the medication will not be worse than allowing it to go through with noted objections. However, if you are sure that there is no way that a patient should get a medication. (Anaphylactic reaction when alternative with proven tolerance is available, or and absolute contraindication) You should absolutely refuse to dispense a medication, as in "No way, no how is this getting out of the pharmacy with my name anywhere on it."

Here are the places you could be liable... You could verify an order that you know might be a bad idea without properly expressing your concerns, You could verify an order after documentation of an objection and bringing it to all the right people, You could refuse to fill an order but allow another pharmacist to fill it without expressing your concerns to them, and You could outright refuse an order (only pharmacist, or convence all others to leave it alone). You cannot get out of liability in this situation, you must do what your professional judgement determines is best for the patient.

BTW: My objection documentation goes like this: "Due to (Evidence or situation), in my professional judgement, this may not be the best therapy for this patient. I have discussed this evidence with the resident Dr. Toonewandtooscared, the supervisor Dr. thinksheknowswhathesdoing, and the attending Dr. Olddudewhothinksheisperfect. They are aware that this therapy might cause (Horrible and terrible outcome) and believe that risks outweigh the benefits. I will allow the medication to be dispensed after being assured that the aforementioned physicians will monitor this patient closely."

BTW: All this goes in a space that shows up in documentation only if you know where to look. I don't want to openly disagree so much as to put a not in the patients chart, but this records my objection to this specific order. I also usually make sure the nurse knows what is going on.
 
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For this situation you say "absolutely should not be on" and I think that this is the essential point. I don't think all of us would agree that this is the kind of situation where you can be absolutely sure that your decision to not give the medication will not be worse than allowing it to go through with noted objections. However, if you are sure that there is no way that a patient should get a medication. (Anaphylactic reaction when alternative with proven tolerance is available, or and absolute contraindication) You should absolutely refuse to dispense a medication, as in "No way, no how is this getting out of the pharmacy with my name anywhere on it."

Here are the places you could be liable... You could verify an order that you know might be a bad idea without properly expressing your concerns, You could verify an order after documentation of an objection and bringing it to all the right people, You could refuse to fill an order but allow another pharmacist to fill it without expressing your concerns to them, and You could outright refuse an order (only pharmacist, or convence all others to leave it alone). You cannot get out of liability in this situation, you must do what your professional judgement determines is best for the patient.

BTW: My objection documentation goes like this: "Due to (Evidence or situation), in my professional judgement, this may not be the best therapy for this patient. I have discussed this evidence with the resident Dr. Toonewandtooscared, the supervisor Dr. thinksheknowswhathesdoing, and the attending Dr. Olddudewhothinksheisperfect. They are aware that this therapy might cause (Horrible and terrible outcome) and believe that risks outweigh the benefits. I will allow the medication to be dispensed after being assured that the aforementioned physicians will monitor this patient closely."

BTW: All this goes in a space that shows up in documentation only if you know where to look. I don't want to openly disagree so much as to put a not in the patients chart, but this records my objection to this specific order. I also usually make sure the nurse knows what is going on.

QFT. Documenting an objection is like trying to learn ballet with clubbed feet.
 
I'm sure a good lawyer could find one way or another to place liability on you. You start heparin, patient has intracranial bleed - why did you start heparin with a therapeutic INR and not wait until <2. Or, you don't start heparin, patient has therapeutic INR but by some stroke of luck develops a thrombus due to warfarin failure - why didn't you listen to the MD. Unfortunately, your manager can say this and that, but if it your name on the order... At least confer with your clinical specialist if you have one or directly speak with the attending. A lot of times a resident will speak with an attending, get directions, and forget a few key points (like start heparin, but only when the INR is lower). If you feel that strongly that this is being prescribed in error and have genuine concern for the patient, the attending is just a phone call away.

INR of 3.8 with hx of afib and IC bleed in for surgery? I see no rush to start heparin and risk sending the patient to a neuro ICU given the info you provided.
 
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My original question is can a pharmacist refuse to dispense a medication even if the doctor insists?

To answer this question. Yes, a pharmacist can refuse.

However;

I have been a hospital pharmacist for nearly 4 years, including my first few years overnight where the residents run the asylum where I was the last and only check before obvious adverse medication events. NEVER, and I mean NEVER have I had a resident outright reject my concerns. In the grand scheme I would say 90% of the time the residents had little idea what they were doing wrong and would say "whatever you think is right, thanks for calling" the other 10% they would check with their Senior and either d/c the order or change the order themselves. Now as a daytime nursing unit based pharmacist and dealing with attendings they aren't as likely to "thank you" for calling them and they are more apt to say "no", but again, they aren't the ones putting in code red sentinel events like the residents.

Anyhow. I'm not going to be the one to tell an Attending "no." If it comes to that I will discuss with a clinical specialist or the clinical manager and they can be the ones to tell them "no".
 
As other's have said, you have an absolute legal duty to refuse to dispense a prescription you believe to be harmful. (this is separate from whether or not there could be job repercussions.....still, much better to deal with job repercussions than to deal with a lawsuit concerning a death.)

I have refused to fill prescriptions that would most certainly be fatal. I have filled borderline prescriptions after talking with the dr and/or pt about my concerns (borderline meaning that I felt their was a great potential for adverse effects, but nothing that would be fatal or critical)
99% of the time, I am able to talk to the prescriber and either convinced her/him of the error and have the prescription changed, or the presciber convinces me while the prescription is needed in the patient's individual case. There have been certain doctors that I had learned from experience would refuse to change the prescription while talking with me, but then immediately go and change the order. I can only think of 2 cases where a doctor refused to change a very bad prescription, the 2 cases were outpatient and involved egregious high dosing of a drug outside of their specialty, and in both of those cases I explained my concerns to the patient and the patient decided not to fill the prescription.
 
There have been certain doctors that I had learned from experience would refuse to change the prescription while talking with me, but then immediately go and change the order.

Hahaha, this happens to me a fair amount. I just laugh and log the intervention and high five myself.
 
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To answer this question. Yes, a pharmacist can refuse.

However;

I have been a hospital pharmacist for nearly 4 years, including my first few years overnight where the residents run the asylum where I was the last and only check before obvious adverse medication events. NEVER, and I mean NEVER have I had a resident outright reject my concerns. In the grand scheme I would say 90% of the time the residents had little idea what they were doing wrong and would say "whatever you think is right, thanks for calling" the other 10% they would check with their Senior and either d/c the order or change the order themselves. Now as a daytime nursing unit based pharmacist and dealing with attendings they aren't as likely to "thank you" for calling them and they are more apt to say "no", but again, they aren't the ones putting in code red sentinel events like the residents.

Anyhow. I'm not going to be the one to tell an Attending "no." If it comes to that I will discuss with a clinical specialist or the clinical manager and they can be the ones to tell them "no".

Interesting that I typed this a few months ago. But the other day was the first day that I have a spar with an attending. Prescriber ordered Xarelto 15mg once daily in a patient with ESRD on HD. The attending also ordered sotalol 80mg q12 on the patient.

It's one of those times where you wish you didn't click on the order. Let someone else deal with it. But alas, it was me. Paged the service. You know this type of attending, old, knows it all, why the hell is this pharmacist bothering me. Not only did I have to tell him he screwed up, but twice, egregiously.

Hero RPh: "Thanks for calling back Dr. Attending. Regarding patient ESRD/HD in bed 325-2, I wanted to make sure you were aware that the patient is end state renal disease and on hemodialysis."

Evil MD: "I know. I'm aware."

Hero RPH: "Yeah, well, both sotalol and Xarelto are contraindicated in this patient." *Proceed to read the Lexi-Comp death sentence.*

Evil MD: "Yeah, well, exactly, how much is renally excreted."

This goes on for about two minutes.

Evil MD: "FINE. Stop the sotalol and restart the metoprolol. But I want the Xarelto."

Hero RPh: "It says 'avoid use'. We can do warfarin instead."

Evil MD: "I'm not concerned"

Hero RPh: "......"

===============

I backed down. I put in a one time order. Clinical RPh followed up the chain of command in the AM with physician cardiology section chair. Who of course wanted nothing to do with it. The Clin RPh documented not only in an I-vent (EPIC) but on the eMAR chart itself, but did indeed verify the order.

Thoughts?
 
15mg once daily?

Yeah, I try and spit out all of my info in one line. If your transcript is accurate you kinda put him/her on the defense by suggesting they didnt realize their patient was on HD. Splitting hairs and it shouldnt affect his decision, but still. Just being honest.

Me: Hey Dr, thanks for giving me a call back. I got an order for Xarelto and Sotalol for this patient so and so who is on HD and those two meds are contraindicated in HD so I was wondering if I could switch them to metoprolol and warfarin so we dont have accumulation issues later on...unless you had other meds in mind?

One long-ass sentence to give them time to think and also no time for them to make a comment until youve spit out all the pertinant info.

If they still shoot me down and I dont agree I do the one time order as well and send it up to a higher pay grade.
 
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I backed down. I put in a one time order. Clinical RPh followed up the chain of command in the AM with physician cardiology section chair. Who of course wanted nothing to do with it. The Clin RPh documented not only in an I-vent (EPIC) but on the eMAR chart itself, but did indeed verify the order.

Thoughts?

We are only as heroic as our physicians allow us to be.

Advise, persuade, document as much as possible when rebuffed (get it into the legal chart record), and then eventually verify it. If possible, a little game to play is to time the order such that there's at least a delay on the administration time. I've found that physicians will tell you no no no 'til the cows come home and once they're off the phone with you, they'll take every recommendation you made.

I don't think I've ever come across a situation where I'll refuse to dispense the drug (like PCN + previous documented anaphylactic reaction, something epic like that).

But as I follow your transcript, I would have changed the way I phrased the first part of the conversation to better elicit a "yes go ahead" response from the physician. You kind of left it hanging, as if you were saying, "He's on dialysis...........you know this, right?" That kind of sets you up for failure later down the line. I would have probably done this:

"Hi Dr. Harry Pants, thanks for the call back. Your patient awvall's mom in 325-2 on dialysis, sotalol and xarelto are actually contraindicated/not recommended in dialysis patients, did you want to switch over to another agent? (alternatively: which substitute agents would you like to use? alternatively: would you like to start ______ and ______ instead? bonus: i can take a verbal order now if you'd like."

Here's what I did:

1) Like sakigt said, I get my priority issues out of the way first. Interest tends to fall after a few seconds.
2) Didn't rely on the physician to make the connection between ESRD and sotalol + xarelto; if he did initially, we wouldn't be having this conversation now.
3) Made the initial question a positive....it makes people feel good and seem in control.

If I gave you the choice of ordering vanilla ice cream vs. chocolate ice cream for the department because it's a hot day, you'll feel pretty good about giving everyone a treat. If I told you it's a hot day, you didn't say anything, then I suggested you buy ice cream for everyone....you're going to feel pretty crummy for not thinking of it in the first place. It's a saving face measure, it doesn't work every time, but it keeps you from lingering on the negative (that the physician forgot about renal issues).

Additional note: giving physicians specific choices may work, depending on personality. Using the ice cream analogy, some people respond better to being given the choice of vanilla vs. chocolate, others want 3-4 choices, others want an open ended question.

4) Made the immediacy subtle -- By pressing the question of what agent to use, or to give a recommendation, it requires a bigger hurdle for the physician to say "no" and to reverse course and blow you off ("I'll look at it later.")

5) Worked as the physician's advocate -- Verbal orders are generally a no-no in the CPOE world unless the doc is at home or something, so I further lower the resistance by making it seem like I'm doing him a favor by entering it and obviating the need for the physician to get to a computer and put it in themselves.
 
This is why I went to med school.... The goal is to help people/save lives.... what the hell is the point if you run into physicians that don't let you do that.

Good point, but this is not exclusive to pharmacy either. I'm sure you've worked under an attending at some point that made some clear blunders and refuses to own up to it.

I guess the difference there is how and when we run it up the flagpole/chain of command.
 
Today I had a doc order a 20 mcg/kg dose of fentanyl for a 6 day old. I disagreed. Turns out they were using it for sedation during surgery, but the way it was written would have likely killed the patient. I should have manually doubled the value of that i-vent.
 
Today I had a doc order a 20 mcg/kg dose of fentanyl for a 6 day old. I disagreed. Turns out they were using it for sedation during surgery, but the way it was written would have likely killed the patient. I should have manually doubled the value of that i-vent.
What is amazing to me, is that your institution has you verify intraoperative medications before they are given. The OR is pretty much the one place I have no way to intervene before something happens.

Fentanyl (and most other OR meds) are just in the Suite or in the OR omnicell, so we just find out what they gave afterwards.
 
What is amazing to me, is that your institution has you verify intraoperative medications before they are given. The OR is pretty much the one place I have no way to intervene before something happens.

Fentanyl (and most other OR meds) are just in the Suite or in the OR omnicell, so we just find out what they gave afterwards.

In my haze of a mind I wondered why I hadn't seen that used...then I read your post, and now it makes sense why I never really saw it.
 
What is amazing to me, is that your institution has you verify intraoperative medications before they are given. The OR is pretty much the one place I have no way to intervene before something happens.

Fentanyl (and most other OR meds) are just in the Suite or in the OR omnicell, so we just find out what they gave afterwards.

That's just the thing. We don't verify intraoperative meds, but for some reason the surgeon had asked another physician to put that order in despite it not being necessary. It was weird all around.
 
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