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Can a current DO student, or perhaps even better a NMM resident, explain how HVLA manipulation works?
Well, it all goes back to homeostasis. Everything in the body likes to be in it's "natural state", in the spine that means all the vertebrae like to be lined up straight and stacked up on top of one another. With somatic dysfunction, one or more are rotated/sidebent so there is an aberration in that straight line. When you treat via HVLA or any other modality, you are correcting the problem and bringing everything in line again. Any muscles/ligaments/what have you that have been affected will also be placed in their "natural state". HVLA is just the quickest way to correct the problem.
That's what I was thinking.Tell me why this seems like a baited question.
I attended a DO school and not a chiropractic school so I can give you my opinion...
When I was in med school, I have a friend (DO) who's girlfriend was in chiropractic school at the same time. Honestly, it seemed like the philosophy was VERY similar to me but they way they set things up the manipulations (Palmer trained) was different. It also seemed like we focus more on myofascial release although I know many chiropractors who do also. Whether or not they picked it up on their on vs. at school I'm not sure.
In my mind, osteopathic and chiropractic manipulation has the same idea: joint mobilization. In my experience, I am not a big fan of people receiving the 12 week package of manipulation treatments 3 times per week which is largely done through chiropractic practioners. I'm sure there are plenty of DOs out there that may practice this way as well but this is what I have seen in my clinics.
The bottom line for me is that manipulation for me is great for symptom relief but it's not a "cure." It's a great way to gain symptom relief so that the patient can participate in a directed therapy program though.
Sorry, I should have clarified a bit better. I was referring to your post as a good answer but the rest was directed at the OP, as he is a chiropractor. The fact that he has been around and should know a great deal about OMM and the differences/similarities between OMM and chiropractic was probably why a few of the above posters may have felt it was a baited question. In any case, I'll give him the benefit of the doubt, but I am curious why the question was asked when he, if anyone, should have a clear understanding of the supposed mechanism, as the osteopathic theory of mechanism doubtfully would vary much from the chiropractic theory of mechanism. Also, what's the standard term for HVLA in the chiropractic world?
From our HVLA lecture:
Theory #1
An HVLA thrust is thought to forcefully stretch a contracted muscle producing a barrage of afferent impulses from the muscle spindles to the CNS. The CNS reflexively sends inhibitory impulses to the muscle spindle to relax the muscle.
Theory #2
An HVLA thrust is thought to forcefully stretch the contracted muscle pulling on its tendon activating the Golgi tendon receptors and reflexively relaxing the muscle
Either way, the body is acting to protect the muscle or joint from strain or damage.
Theory me this and theory me that...A.T Still whittled a wonder 'that'...seriously, we are on the verge of 2011...I challenge all osteopathic professionals to use some critical thinking skills.
From our HVLA lecture:
Theory #1
An HVLA thrust is thought to forcefully stretch a contracted muscle producing a barrage of afferent impulses from the muscle spindles to the CNS. The CNS reflexively sends inhibitory impulses to the muscle spindle to relax the muscle.
Theory #2
An HVLA thrust is thought to forcefully stretch the contracted muscle pulling on its tendon activating the Golgi tendon receptors and reflexively relaxing the muscle
Either way, the body is acting to protect the muscle or joint from strain or damage.