Long time lurker here. Enjoyed reading clinical discussions. I'm quite fresh out of training and would appreciate any feedback or wisdom about a recent case:
50 yo F for elective lumbar laminectomy. PMH of lupus anticoagulant with previous right central retinal vein thrombosis on plavix + coumadin, off both for 5 days for surgery. She's on Plaquenil, CellCept, Prednisone for SLE. No h/o HTN, DM, stroke, heart/lung/renal/hepatic issues. 100kg BMI 35. NKDA. No previous GA anesthetic issues. METS>4. Standard ASA monitors, induced with fentanyl 50mcg, propofol 200mg, lidocaine 40mg, sux 100mg. Easy DLx1 intubation without issue. Post-induction A. line. VSS throughout induction and pre-incision with BP roughly 140s/80s, HR 70s, SpO2 100%, ETCO2 roughly 35, NSR. Anesthesia maintained with ETsevo 1.8 at this point. Rocuronium 20mg given (wanted to preserve motor for MEP but wanted to decrease moving/bucking when flipping), then pt flipped prone, all VSS, ETT checked good position with same ETCO2. At this point pt was being preped, surgeon scrubbing, then suddenly... what appeared to be a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Immediately administered versed, large propofol bolus, ABG drawn (ph 7.32/ CO2 42/O2 426/bicarb 21.6), labs (K4.0, glu 97, neg TnI), sent to ICU, Keppra given. CXR neg, EKG NSR, stat CT head no bleed/midline shift/lesion, but focal decreased left MCA superior branch diameter poss. thrombus vs. stenosis. Stat MRI negative for ischemia. EEG in ICU no seizure activity. VSS in ICU.
Of course, per neuro, the "new onset seizure" was likely "a reaction to the anesthetic" since surgery hadn't started yet. I did some preliminary reading saying that fentanyl, propofol, sevo can all induce seizure activity. But these are the most commonly used agents.
What should I have done differently? What induction agents would you choose or what would you do, if she came back a few weeks later for a repeat procedure? Thanks in advance for any feedback.
50 yo F for elective lumbar laminectomy. PMH of lupus anticoagulant with previous right central retinal vein thrombosis on plavix + coumadin, off both for 5 days for surgery. She's on Plaquenil, CellCept, Prednisone for SLE. No h/o HTN, DM, stroke, heart/lung/renal/hepatic issues. 100kg BMI 35. NKDA. No previous GA anesthetic issues. METS>4. Standard ASA monitors, induced with fentanyl 50mcg, propofol 200mg, lidocaine 40mg, sux 100mg. Easy DLx1 intubation without issue. Post-induction A. line. VSS throughout induction and pre-incision with BP roughly 140s/80s, HR 70s, SpO2 100%, ETCO2 roughly 35, NSR. Anesthesia maintained with ETsevo 1.8 at this point. Rocuronium 20mg given (wanted to preserve motor for MEP but wanted to decrease moving/bucking when flipping), then pt flipped prone, all VSS, ETT checked good position with same ETCO2. At this point pt was being preped, surgeon scrubbing, then suddenly... what appeared to be a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. Immediately administered versed, large propofol bolus, ABG drawn (ph 7.32/ CO2 42/O2 426/bicarb 21.6), labs (K4.0, glu 97, neg TnI), sent to ICU, Keppra given. CXR neg, EKG NSR, stat CT head no bleed/midline shift/lesion, but focal decreased left MCA superior branch diameter poss. thrombus vs. stenosis. Stat MRI negative for ischemia. EEG in ICU no seizure activity. VSS in ICU.
Of course, per neuro, the "new onset seizure" was likely "a reaction to the anesthetic" since surgery hadn't started yet. I did some preliminary reading saying that fentanyl, propofol, sevo can all induce seizure activity. But these are the most commonly used agents.
What should I have done differently? What induction agents would you choose or what would you do, if she came back a few weeks later for a repeat procedure? Thanks in advance for any feedback.