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I don't understand the rational for this question. The data shows information on the likelihood of using cocaine for certain demographics of arrestees. The chart indicates that whites have the lowest rate. They do not indicate anything for non-whites.
The question asks "using the chart what demographic is most likely to use cocaine"
The answer was non-white and the rational was that it is the inverse of white, which had the lowest ratio.
How can they conclude the likelihood of non whites based only on what whites do. That doesn't make sense to me. What do you think?
Here's the link
https://www.khanacademy.org/test-pr...cial-conflict-theory-in-an-historical-context
The question asks "using the chart what demographic is most likely to use cocaine"
The answer was non-white and the rational was that it is the inverse of white, which had the lowest ratio.
How can they conclude the likelihood of non whites based only on what whites do. That doesn't make sense to me. What do you think?
Here's the link
https://www.khanacademy.org/test-pr...cial-conflict-theory-in-an-historical-context