I have a friend who is a physiatrist (MD) who completed a sports and spine fellowship that did incorporate "some" osteopathic/manual medicine training. According to the office website, it lists that he/she is trained in "osteopathic assessment."
I know for a fact that we are talking about a 4-5 day course taught by osteopathic physicians. My question is, can he/she state that they are trained to perform an "osteopathic assessment?" There is no claim to be an osteopathic physician or board certification by an osteopathic professional body.
I guess I philosophically have a problem with it because I know that it takes more than a weekend course to develop this skill set. Granted there are some "naturals" that can pick up the art of palpation but even then I would not claim to have any proficiency after a year.
I know I am being a little nit picky but I think it's a little misleading. At best, I would claim training in "manual medicine" which is a very general term but probably most appropriate in this particular case.
I'm sure someone is going to say that there is no difference in the terms. However, I know there is and to those who disagree please tell me how they are similar.
Just curious to hear everyone's thoughts...
I know for a fact that we are talking about a 4-5 day course taught by osteopathic physicians. My question is, can he/she state that they are trained to perform an "osteopathic assessment?" There is no claim to be an osteopathic physician or board certification by an osteopathic professional body.
I guess I philosophically have a problem with it because I know that it takes more than a weekend course to develop this skill set. Granted there are some "naturals" that can pick up the art of palpation but even then I would not claim to have any proficiency after a year.
I know I am being a little nit picky but I think it's a little misleading. At best, I would claim training in "manual medicine" which is a very general term but probably most appropriate in this particular case.
I'm sure someone is going to say that there is no difference in the terms. However, I know there is and to those who disagree please tell me how they are similar.
Just curious to hear everyone's thoughts...