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Nbd 2 Questions

Discussion in 'NBDE Exams & Licensure Exams' started by dentistgal, 02.05.07.


  1. Thanks to Crack the NBDE
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  1. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    SDN Members don't see this ad. (About Ads)

    to cut the LONG story short veneers are CLEANED after the TRY IN with pumice and water ...refer to the prosthodontics deck
  2. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    help me out here fellows its 1 or 3??
  3. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    :)
  4. LKY

    LKY

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    ???? I means the answer is ethanol...not pumice
  5. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    you are wrong my friend.
  6. perav

    perav New Member

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    which of the following injections have positive inspiration
    1)IA 10-15%
    2)akisino
    #)infraorbital
    $)gow gate 2%
    mental nerve

    it is inferior alveolar nerve has 10-15% positive aspiration , next to that is psa with 3.1% positive aspiration /
  7. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    asprin stops pain by
    1)stoping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
    2)syopping the signal transduction in the cortex
    3)interfering with the signal trasnduction in the cns
    4)stopping local signal transduction and production

    Aspirin's ability to suppress the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes is due to its non-competitive and irreversible inhibition of the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme. Cyclooxygenase is required for prostaglandin and thromboxane synthesis. Aspirin acts as an acetylating agent where an acetyl group is covalently attached to a serine residue in the active site of the COX enzyme. This makes aspirin different from other NSAIDs (such as diclofenac and ibuprofen), which are reversible inhibitors.

    Prostaglandins are local hormones (paracrine) produced in the body and have diverse effects in the body, including but not limited to transmission of pain information to the brain, modulation of the hypothalamic thermostat, and inflammation. Thromboxanes are responsible for the aggregation of platelets that form blood clots. Heart attacks are primarily caused by blood clots, and their reduction with the introduction of small amounts of aspirin has been seen to be an effective medical intervention. The side-effect of this is that the ability of the blood in general to clot is reduced, and excessive bleeding may result from the use of aspirin.

    Central and peripheral activities The analgesic and antipyretic effects of aspirin are CNS effects, whereas the anti-inflammatory and anti-rheumatic effects occur in the periphery.

    Separately labelled acetyl and salicylic moieties of aspirin build up in different parts of the body. The acetyl group is a strong prostaglandin inhibitor and acts peripherally, while salicylic acid, a weak prostaglandin inhibitor, is able to cross the blood-brain barrier and act centrally in the spinal cord.


    so 1 or 3????
  8. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    i will go with one!
  9. dralana1977

    dralana1977 Junior Member

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    35. Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical
    dimension. The treatment of choice is to
    A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance.
    B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance..correct
    C. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension
    to gain the necessary clearance.
    D. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior
    extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences.

    what do you guys think?
  10. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    yea ur right u reduce the tuberosities surgically.
  11. dralana1977

    dralana1977 Junior Member

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    Where cavity preparations are extensive, polycarboxylate cement can be used as a base material because
    A. its pH stimulates secondary dentin formation.
    B. it interacts with setting amalgam to form a weak chemical union.
    C. it is biocompatible with the pulp....correct
    D. it is compressible when set.

    am I right?
  12. dralana1977

    dralana1977 Junior Member

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    37. Gold contributes which of the following properties to a gold-copper alloy?
    A. Corrosion resistance.
    B. Increased strength.
    C. Lowered specific gravity.
    D. Increased hardness.

    ???????:confused:
  13. perav

    perav New Member

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    corrosion resistance
  14. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    correct
  15. perav

    perav New Member

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    the number perunit area and the diameter increases towards the pulp .the pulpal surface area is much smaller then the surface at the dej .thus tubules converge towards pulp.the deposition of peritubular dentin is more near the dej thus narrowing the diameter .
  16. dralana1977

    dralana1977 Junior Member

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    38. The coefficient of thermal expansion of composite resins is
    A. greater than that of enamel...correct
    B. the same as that of enamel.
    C. less than that of enamel.
    D. the same as that of amalgam.
    E. the same as that of glass ionomer cement.

    ????
  17. dralana1977

    dralana1977 Junior Member

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    39. Which of the following impression materials is the most dimensionally stable?
    A. Condensation type silicone.
    B. Polysulphide.
    C. Polyvinyl siloxane...correct
    D. Reversible hydrocolloid.
    E. Irreversible hydrocolloid.

    ???:confused:
  18. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    right
  19. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    correct
  20. DDS NO 1

    DDS NO 1

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    1 Which microbe is least likely to be killed in an autoclave?
    a. HIV
    b. HBV
    c. Streptococcus mutans
    d. Bacillus
    2 Contaminated sharp must be handles in such ways except for
    a. The container must be labeled
    b. The container has be non-puncturable
    c. The container has be a metal case
    d. The container must be closable
    3 the closest act the dentist would have for comforting to a patient
    a. look in the eye of the patients
    b. tap on the shoulder
    4 The best way to communicate with patient? talk to the patient while looking into his/her eyes
    The patient's sadness can be observed from
    a. his words
    b. his facial expression
    c. his gesture
    d. his emotion
    5 cranial nerve V2 should be anesthetized intraorally at pterygopalatine fossa
    6 which one of the conditions would delay a dentist's decision of taking full mouth X-ray examination
    a. pregnancy
    b. patient had full mouth examination by X-ray 6 months ago
    c. patient will receive radiotherapy next week
    d. patient had CT examination last week
    7 post operations bleeding-the most likely reason is patient fail to follow post-operation instruction
    8 Nasopalatine duct cyst a. is located at midline between 2 central incisors
    b. the pulp testing would differentiate it from periapical cysts
    9 a patient had mandibular fracture quite some time ago and now have a painful movable tender mss in the old fracture area near the mental foramen it is a traumatic neuroma
    10 probing depth differs depending on
    a. inflammation of the tissue
    b. force used for probing
    c. if probing depth decrease, it may be due to reduction of inflammation and swelling, not due to real regain of attachment
    11 if a patient does not have enough posterior inter-arch space for both maxillary and mandibular dentures fabrication, it is necessary to
    Perform a tuberosity operation
    12 the function of post
    a. provide retention for a crown
    b. enhance the strength of the tooth
    c. provide retention for a core
    d. provide the root canal sealing
    13 standard root canal treatments requires a dentist to perform the treatment until
    a. CEJ
    b. DCJ
    c. DEJ
    14 If during the root canal treatment, the dentist breaks the apical seating and extrude the file over the foramen
    a. fill the canal with a master file of a larger number then master cone
    b. increase the size of the file and re-create a new apical seat and then fill with the master cone of that size
    c. try to fill in as many Gutta percha points as possible
    d. use canal medication instead of filling
    15 what age does a child completes its primary dentition to occlusion
    a. at birth
    b. 6 months
    c. 11/2 years old
    d. 21/2 years old
    16 how old does a child/infant start to show the first sign of the primary dentition
    prenatal in the uterus at 6 weeks
    17 if a dentist want to check if the patient's mandible has suffered from fracture or not, what is the best indication?
    occlusion and arch continuity
    18 what is the best timing for prforming incision and drainage at an area of infection
    a. when the swelling is hard and diffuse
    b. when the area is the most painful
    c. when the area is large
    d. when the swelling is localized and fluctuant
    19 if removal of torus must be performed to a patient with full-mouth dentition, where should the incision be made
    a. right on the top of the torus
    b. at the base of the torus
    c. midline of the torus
    d. from the gingival sulcus of the adjacent teeth
    20 where is the an allograft from
    a. freeze dried human bone graft
    b. freeze dried bovine bone graft
    c. hydroxyappatite
    d. Cancellous bone of the patient himself
    21 if an autogenous bone graft was placed within a mandibular bone cavity, after one year, where is the bone from within this cavity
    a. from the autogenous bone cells
    b. from the peripheral cancellous bone
    c. mostly from the autogenous bone cells, only the periphery is from the cortical bone places of the cavity
    22 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
    a. maxillary molars
    b. mandibular molars
    c. primary molars
    d. incisors
    23 the prognosis for a mesio-distal furcation involvement of maxillary first premolars is general good. After proper treatment, this tooth can be used for an abutment of a posterior bridge
    a. both statements are correct
    b. the first statement is correct but not the second
    c. the first statement is wrong, but second statement is correct
    d. both statements are wrong
    24 after implant placement, an edentulous patient should
    a. avoid wearing anything for 2 weeks
    b. immediately have healing abutments placed over the implants
    c. should wear an immediate denture to protect the implant sites
    25tissue conditioner is used for treating
    a. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
    b. Epulis fissuratum
    c. traumatized mucosa
    c. rocking denture stabilization
    26 if during a recall of a patient who wears RPD, the dentist finds that the indirect retainer and the rests would be lifted if he press on the edentulous area of this RPD, what should the dentist do
    a. tell the patient that he needs a new denture
    b. relining the denture
    c. Occlusal adjustment
    27 after perio surgery, the re-attachment can happen
    a. as soon as in a week
    b. to the dentin or cementum
    28 scaling can be done on
    a. only enamel but not root surface
    b. both enamel and root surface
    c. only root surface
    29 there are more detached plaques within supragingival plaques that subgingival plaques. The detached plaques within subgingival area are the ones that are more toxic to tissue than attached plaques.
    a. both statements are correct
    b. the first statement is correct but not the second
    c. the first statement is wrong, but second statement is correct
    d. both statements are wrong
    30 the fact that patient can decide for himself for the treatment and that the dentist would respect the patient's wills is called
    autonomy
    31 Moyer's analysis is to know
    predict the size of unerupted canine and premolars
    by using mandibular incisors
    32 where is primate space
    maxillary: between lateral incisor and canine
    mandibular: between canine and first molar
    33 when should the posterior cross bite be corrected
    a. ASAP
    b. when until permanent dentition has fully developed
    c. during early mixing dentition
  21. DDS NO 1

    DDS NO 1

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    34 which one of the following is not the effect of epinephrine
    a. increase of heart rate
    b. increase of blood pressure
    c. bronchoconstriction
    d. vasoconstriction
    35 beside inadequate irrigation, what else can be the reason for a dentist to fail to remove totally the canal necrotic tissue?
    a. failure to use intra-canal medication
    b. failure to remove periapical tissues
    c. lack of straight-line access
    36 beside drainage, what else should be done for a patient with acute pulpitis
    a. antibiotics prescription
    b. analgesics
    c. removal and debridement of canal therapy
    37 N2O is contraindicated in patients who have
    a. leukemia
    b. drug abuse
    c. mild-moderate asthma
    d. dental anxiety
    38 TMD patients usually have
    a. psychosis
    b. antisocial tendency
    c. Schizotypical character
    d. drug abuse
    39 what does perforation tend to happen at maxillary first premolar during access opening of a root canal therapy
    there is a mesial concavity
    40 why is Z-plasty preferred over diamond technique for frenum detachment
    a. less scar contraction
    b. easier in terms of technique
    c. less incision needed, no suture needed
    41 if a child has diastema of 2mm at the age of 8
    a. it can be a normal condition
    b. it is caused by heavy frenum
    c. the child needs orthodontic treatment right the way
    42 1 week after multiple extraction and alveoloplasty, the patient returns with a swelling at the ridge area. The patient does not have fever, nor in pain. The swelling extends to mucogingival fold with fluid inside. X-ray shows that there are spicules within the swelling. What should the dentist do
    a. prescribe antibiotics and observe for a week
    b. prescribe analgesics
    c. surgically drain the swelling and remove the bone spicules
    42 a patient who suffers from insulin shock turns unconscious. What should the dentist do?
    a. IV injection of 5% dextran water
    b. IV injection of 50% dextran water
    c. feed patient with sugar good
    43 in order to give a patient an incisor with younger look, what can the dentist do?
    a. straighten incisor edge
    b. rounding incisor edge
    c. move the line angles proximally
    d. move height of contour gingivally
    44 inadequate attached gingiva without any periodontal symptom or sign
    no treatment is necessary
    45 histologically, aspirin burn is
    a. hyperkeratosis
    b. dysplasia
    c. mucosal necrosis
    46 what is the purpose of leveling the curve of Spee
    a. correct open bite
    b. correct deep bite
    c. correct angulation of the teeth
    d. change arch diameter
    47 palatal expansion device does not need a labial bow because
    a. labial bow is not rigid enough
    b. labial bow would limit the expansion effect
    c. labial bow is not functional in this case
    48 what effect does a cervical pull headgear has on the maxillary teeth
    a. extrusion and distal movement
    b. intrusion and distal movement
    c. extrusion and mesial movement
    d. intrusion and mesial movement
    49 most of the time, what type of force can a removable appliance provide?
    a. intrusion
    b. extrusion
    c. tipping
    d. torquing
    e. translation
    50 what is the definition of total anterior facial height on a cephalograph
    a. nasion-menton
    b. ANS-menton
    c. A-menton
    d. A-B
    51 what are A and B point on a cephalograph
    52 what is the most likely cause of a premature exfoliation of primary canine
    inadequate arch space
    53 when there is a premature loss of primary mandibular second molars, the permanent mandibular first molar usually change the path of eruption by erupting mesially-what is the cause of change of the eruption
    a. occlusion
    b. pathological
    c. mesial drifting
    54 what happen if there is a premature exfoliation of a mandibular primary canine
    the mandibular incisors would move distally and lingually
    decrease arch length
    shift midline to affect side
    need space maintainer
    55 what happens with intercanine distance after mixed dentition
    a. increased
    b. decreased
    c. stable, no change
    56 after the age of 6, where does the mandibular growth of a child mostly happens
    posterior to the second molars
    57 where is the maxillary growth center
    maxillary tuberosity
    58 if there is no succedaneous tooth, a primary tooth would absorb
    a. more slowly
    b. more quickly
    c. would not resorb at all
    59 a patient who works at a nuclear power plant wears a work badge for detecting exposed amount of radiation annually. When he comes to see a dentist, what is the most likely reason that he does not need to wear his badge during the dental X-ray examination
    a. dental x-ray is too small amount for the badge
    b. the badge only detects exposed amount at work, the dental X-ray does not include in his work environment dose
    c. the badge detects gamma ray, not X-ray
    60 if there is radiation exposure of 4 Gy on the arm, what is the likely reaction
    a. erythema
    b. bone marrow depression
    c. vascular shrinkage
    61 which cells are the most sensitive to radiotherapy
    a. hematopoietics
    b. GI mucosa
    c. muscle
    d. adult brain cells
    62 upper limb IV injection, the most likely problem is
    a. Phlebitis
    b. intra-arterial injection
    c. vascular breakage
    63 a child asking repetitive and persistent questions are most likely
    a. very curious about the treatment
    b. trying to delay the treatment
    c. hyperkinetic
    d. audistic
    64 the problem that dentists encounter the most during treatment of audistic children is
    lack of communication
    65 what kind of disease would result a patient to have osteoma and multiple intestinal polyposis
    Gardner’s syndrome
    66 polyposis perioral pigmentation
    Peutz-Jeghers
    67 a patient who has multiple odontokeratocysts in the jaw and dermal pigmented macules on the back, cyst lesion on the skin should be suspected to have
    basal cell nevus syndrome
    68 which syndrome would have the triad of diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos multiple bone lesion
    Langerhans cell histiocytosis
    69 to differentiate cement dysplasia from a periapical cyst
    a. pulp testing
    b. probing
    c. X-ray
    70 which of the following would cause malaise and fever on a patient
    a. acute periodontal abscess
    b. acute pulpitis
    c. chronic pulpitis
    d. acute periodontitis
    71 aspirin stops pain by
    a. stopping the upward transduction of pain signal in the spinal cord
    b. stopping the signal transduction in the cortex
    c. interfere with signal interpretation in the CNS
    d. stopping local signal production and transduction
    72 the following are the natural endorphins except
    a. enkephalin
    b. endorphin
    c. dynorphin
    d. bradykinin
    73 what is the action of morphine for pain relief
    mimicking body endorphin system
    74 which one of the following does not have anti-inflammatory reactions
    acetaminophen only, all NSAID have anti-inflammatory
    75 periodontal disease can be caused by all of the followings except
    a. poor oral hygiene
    b. heavy dental plaque
    c. faulty prosthesis
    d. DM
    76 which of the following materials is very hard to remove from patient's mouth
    a. alginate
    b. polyether
    c. polysulfide
    d. silicone
    77 which one of the followings is not a characteristics of additional type silicone
    a. impression must be poured right away because alcohol would vaporized and result in distortion
    b. very stable, can be stored for more than a week
    c. can have multiple pours
    d. high accuracy
    e. may release H2 in some materials
    78 GIC is composed of
    aluminosilicate+polyacrylic acid
    79 the best and the most effective way to remove stained mottled enamel
    a. home bleaching
    b. microabrasion technique
    c. office bleaching
    d. walking bleaching
    80 what is a microabrasion technique
    intrinsic stain can be caused by
    porphyria
    81 the followings have additive action for each component when used together, except for one, what is the exception
    a. Atropine+glycopyrolate (anticholinergic)
    b. aspirin acetaminophen
    c. penicillin tetracycline
    82 what is the maximal concentration used for N2O sedation?
    a. 5%
    b. 10%
    c. 50%
    d. 80%
    83 patients who have nausea and vomit during N2O sedation usually
    a. are allergic to N2O
    b. inhale too high concentration of N2O
    c. eat a big meal right before the procedure
    84 what is the % of US population who sees a dentist each year?
    what is the best sedative medication in a dental office setting
    a. phenobarbital
    b. morphine
    c. N2O
    85 what are the schedule II drugs?
    during fabrication of pediatric SSC, which surface of the tooth requires the least reduction
    a. facial
    b. lingual
    c. proximal
    d. they all need the same amount of reduction
    86 ataxic epilepsy patients-what are their most common dental problem
    a. adontia
    b. malocclusion
    c. trauma
    d. gingival hyperplasia due to medication
    87 what is the optimal incisal reduction of anterior porcelain fused to metal crown
    a. 1mm
    b. 1.5mm
    c. 2.0mm
    d. 2.5mm
    88 porcelain veneer-what is the most important advantage
    compared with porcelain veneer, what is the most important advantage of resin veneer
    a. esthetic
    b. cost
    c. tooth preservation
    89 compared with class II plaster, which one of the following is NOT the characteristics of die strength
    a. better compression strength
    b. better tensile strength
    c. require less water
    d. higher expansion
    90 which of the followings is not an advantage of resin based GIC over water based GIC?
    a. better Fluoride release
    b. better bonding
    c. better esthetic
    d. easier for manipulation
    91 what is the characteristics of an implant that would change bony resorption pattern
    a. intraosseous integration
    b. integrate with bone
    92 what are the recommended numbers of implants for complete edentous patients
    a. maxilla 1 mandibular 1
    b maxilla 3 mandibular 2
    c. maxilla 6 mandibular 4
    d. maxilla 8 mandibular 6
    93 what is the term that describe the number of the cases of a disease divided by the population
    a. incidence
    b. ratio
    c. prevalence
    94 what is median of 10 20 20 20 30 35 40 40 50 50 60
    apically positioned flap is almost impossible to perform on
    a. maxillary buccal area
    b. maxillary lingual area
    c. mandibullar lingual area
    d. mandibular buccal area
    95 in order to increase the success rate of treating local juvenile periodontitis, what should be done
    a. combine usage of systemic antibiotic
    b. local antibiotic treatment
    c. use of chlorhexidine
    96 class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking up contact at the gingival cavosurface? What is the purpose of placing retention grooves, and where do you place these grooves?
    97 which feature provide the BOND onlay the most retention?
    98 which drugs have active metabolites that would prolong its effect?
    Diazepam, chlordiazepoxide (all choice are narcotics)
    99 when a child loses its primary second molar before permanent first molar eruption, what is the choice of space maintainer?
    a. lingual holding arch
    b. band and loop
    c. distal shoes
    d. Nance appliance
    100 A black male with erosive lips, erythematous and blisters on his lips, the description says that he also have palmar and planta erosion and blisters, what is this syndrome?
    a. lichen planus
    b. erythema multiform
    c. pemphigus vulgaris
    d. pemphigoid
  22. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    Contraindications to Nitrous Oxide

    N2O should not be used for patients with bowel obstruction, pneumothorax, middle ear and sinus disease, and following cerebral air-contrast studies. Many anaesthetists feel that use of N2O should be restricted during the first two trimesters of pregnancy because of its effects on DNA production and the experimental and epidemiological evidence that N2O causes undesirable reproductive outcomes. Since N2O affects white blood cell production and function, it has been recommended that N2O not be administered to immunosuppressed patients or to patients requiring multiple general anaesthetics.
  23. pendejodo

    pendejodo Senior Member

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    good patology webside
  24. pendejodo

    pendejodo Senior Member

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  25. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    :thumbup:
  26. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    will answer the rest later gotta have lunch!
  27. pendejodo

    pendejodo Senior Member

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  28. DDS NO 1

    DDS NO 1

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    23 cant it be first is wrong and second statement is correct
  29. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

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    nopes
  30. perav

    perav New Member

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    22 enamel pearls happen mostly at which teeth
    a. maxillary molars
    b. mandibular molars
    c. primary molars
    d. incisors.....correct

    it is maxillary molars
  31. perav

    perav New Member

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    37 N2O is contraindicated in patients who have
    a. leukemia....true
    b. drug abuse
    c. mild-moderate asthma
    d. dental anxiety

    drug abuse
  32. perav

    perav New Member

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    48 what effect does a cervical pull headgear has on the maxillary teeth
    a. extrusion and distal movement
    b. intrusion and distal movement....TRUE
    c. extrusion and mesial movement
    d. intrusion and mesial movement

    extrusion and distal movement .
  33. LKY

    LKY

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    It is incisors... just done one of the ASDA past exam...I'm sure is Incisor, maxillary Inc
  34. DDS NO 1

    DDS NO 1

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    Messages:
    95
    Location:
    virginia
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    101 white macule on the floor of the mouth, bilateral, what is most likely diagnosis?
    an old male came to the clinic with pain and swelling on the left side of mandible. The patient mentioned that he had extractions a few mouth ago and the healing was not going well. In X-ray shows cotton wool, ground glass radio-opacity lesion at the left side of the mandible, the bone margines is diffuse and non-clear. large area is involved and there is no definite margin.
    chronic osteomyelitis
    102 a child comes to the clinic with pain at the mandible. The X-ray shows sunflower outgrowth of bone spicules
    osteosarcoma
    103 which component in local anesthesia causes the most toxic effects in clinical situations?
    a. vasoconstrictor
    b. local anesthesia
    c. preservatives
    104 what are the systemic effect of lidocaine and epinephrine
    105 when pKa increases for the same lidocaine, what happens to its effect?
    local anesthetics with a pKa closer to the physiologic pH will have higher concentrations of the non-ionized base (lipid soluble) form pass into the nerve cell resulting in a more rapid onset of action
    106 the percentage of specific LA which is present in the base form when injected in tissue whose pH is 7.4 is inversely proportional to the pKa of that agent
    a. onset is faster, duration is longer
    b. onset is slower, duration is longer
    c. onset is the same, duration is the same
    d. onset is slower, duration is the same
    107 why should the wax pattern be washed by soap water before it is invested
    increase surface wetting ability
    a child with post operational lip swelling is most likely to have
    a. allergy to the local anesthesia
    b. bitten on his lip
    c. accidental vascular injection
    108 which local anesthesia can be used as a topical anesthesia as well
    a. lidocaine
    b. bupivacaine
    c. Polocaine
    109 which antibiotics should a patient take who needs premedication prophylaxis and who is allergic to penicillins according to the American heart association 1997 recommendation?
    clindamycin 600mg
    a tongue with a smooth pink swelling on the dorsum
    a. a neuroma
    b. a neurofibroma
    c. a fibroma
    110 what is the most likely post operative side effect of bilateral sagittal split osteotomy
    a. instability
    b. nerve damage
    c. devitalization of teeth
    d. relapse
    111 which nerve would the ramus split osteotomy most likely damage?
    for extracting of third molar, the following conditions would make the operation easier, except?
    a. elastic bone
    b. conical roots
    c. soft tissue impaction
    d. space within tooth bud is small
    112 what kind of question would be an open-ended question?
    what is the most used trigeminal neuralgia medication?
    a patient who is taking dicumarol has most likely a history of
    a. angina
    b. coronal infarct
    c. congestive heart failure
    d. corp pulmonale
    113 what is the common sign for all kinds of shocks?
    lack of perfusion
    what is the first sign of a patient who is suffering from insulin shock?
    a. pallor
    b. shaking
    c. sweating
    d. nervousness
    114 in which areas should scalloping be reduced in periodontal surgery?
    anterior esthetic region
    115 what is the best sign for success of apexogenesis
    continuous completion of apex
    116 what kind of procedure should be performed on a tooth with necrotic pulp and unfinished root tip
    a. apexogenesis
    b. apexification
    c. pulpotomy
    d. pulpectomy
    117 which type of syncope is most common in dental office
    a. hypovolemic
    b. psychogenic
    c. posture
    118 when parents insist on entering the dental office with the child, the child's behavior is usually
    a. worse
    b. better
    c. depending on the parent's behavior
    119 the toxic effect of sulf ram is produced by which of its metabolites?
    a. acetyl aldehyde
    b. formaldehyde
    c. glutaraldehyde
    120 during injection of superior posterior alveolar nerve, a swelling suddenly occurs, what most likely happen? what is the treatment of this?
    121 which one of the injections most likely have positive inspiration?
    a. IA 10-15%
    b. akisino
    c. infraorbital
    d. Gow-Gate 2%
    e. mental nerve
    122 which of the following drugs would produce gingival hyperplasia and immuno depression?
    a. nifedipine
    b. cyclosporin
    c. phenytoin
    123 a child who is having leukemia treatment most likely have the infection of
    a. histoplasmosis
    b. candidiasis
    124 what is the most definite way to differentiate ameloblastoma, and odontogenic keratocyst?
    a. smear cytology
    b. reactive light microscopy
    c. reflective microscopy
    125 what is the most likely diagnosis of a soft tissue lesion that is fixed at the margines
    a. infection
    b. malignancy
    c. begin tumor
    126 what is the cyst that has lymphoid tissue and epithelioid cells?
    lymphoepithelioid cysts
    127 what is the most likely sign of neoplasm?
    a. metaplasia
    b. anaplasia
    c. aplasia
    128 what is the Bennett angle?
    129 when the dentist inserts in new complete denture in a patient's mouth, there is obvious occlusal disharmony. What is the most likely cause?
    a. initial vertical dimension
    b. the casts were mounted at the wrong hinge axis
    130 a dentist who uses 5-HEMA for clinical situations most likely experiences which of the following conditions for the clinician?
    a.contact dermatitis
    b. arthritis
    c. arthus reaction
    d. delayed hypersensitivity
    d. anaphylaxis
    131 if upper anterior teeth are placed too anteriorly and superiorly in a complete denture, the patient would have difficult pronouncing
    a. v/f sound
    b. t/d sound
    c. s/th sound
    d. j/ch sound
    132 what was done wrong that the resin teeth won't stay with resin denture base?
    a. retentive holes are not big enough
    b. there is no locking system
    c. wax got in between during processing
    133 what is purpose of beveling at MON cavosurface?
    for a patient with a faulty amalgam restoration, replacement with casting inlay/onlay might be better because
    a. better adaptation
    b. better retention
    c. better proximal contour
    134 when restoration material is resin, which kind of base material should be avoided?
    a. zinc phosphate
    b. zinc oxide eugenol
    c. glass ionomer cement
    d. resin modified GIC
    135 why is it that, during mixing cement, the liquid part is not taken out of its container right before mixing?
    a. the liquid would spread widely
    b. keep it cool in its container
    c. prevent loss of volatile materials
    136 red erosion at gingiva, buccal mucosa, tongue
    erosive lichen planus
    a dental patient with type 1 DM should
    a. delay both his insulin shot and food intake until dental procedure completed
    b. eat prior to dental procedure, delay his insulin shot until procedure is over
    c. eat and have the insulin shot prior to dental procedure
    137 a 5 years old child who lives in a community with water fluoridation of 0.75ppm should have supplemental F intake of
    a. 0mg
    b. 0.25mg
    c. 0.5mg
    d. 1mg
    138 the best concentration of APF for clinical use
    a. 5%
    b. 1 %
    c. 0.5%
    d. 1.23%
    d. 3.2%
    139 0.5 oz chlorhexidine equals how much of ml chlorhexidine?
    140 which field of following can be a specialty according to ADA
    a. public health
    b. cosmetic dentistry
    c. hospital dentistry
    d. geriatric dentistry
    141 what are the most abundant cells in crevicular fluid in gingivitis and periodontitis?
    a. mast cells
    b. neutrophils
    c. plasma cells
    d. basophiles
    142 which kind of parents can not be treated with b-blocker as anti-arrithymic medication
    a. patients with angina
    b. patients with hypertension
    c. patients with asthma
    d. patient with COPD
    143 which one of the following is the most important factor for providing retention cor complete denture
    a. cohesion
    b. adhesion
    c. peripheral seal
    144 what are the two most important factors for retention for complete denture?
    peripheral seal
    intimate tissue contact
    145 what is the reason that a patient complains of lower complete denture "popping up" all the time
    a. lack of retention
    b. over-extention
    c. under-extention
    d. deflective occlusion
    146 what is the cause of epulis fissuratum
    a. unstable denture
    b. under extention
    c. over extention
    d. traumatic occlusion
    147 a patient complains that his TMJ would pop upon opening and click during closing. What is the likely diagnosis
    a. ankylosis
    b. reciprocal clicking
    c. arthritis
    148 what are the muscle that determine the lingual border of a mandibular complete denture
    glossopalatal, mylohyoid, geniohyoid
    149 which gland is the one that most likely to have sialolith
    a. submental
    b. submandibular
    c. parotid
    d. palatal mucus gland
    150 which intra-oral site is the most common site of melanoma
    a. buccal mucosa
    b. gingiva
    c. hard palate
    d. floor of mouth
    e. tongue
  35. DDS NO 1

    DDS NO 1

    Joined:
    03.10.07
    Messages:
    95
    Location:
    virginia
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    151 when observing an amalgam filling, the dentist found that there is proximogingival angle deficiency, what is likely to be the main cause of this
    a. a. inadequate wedging
    b. matrix not well adapted
    c. too large an initial amount of amalgam added to the cavity
    152 which type of amalgam needs larger condensers and lateral condensation?
    a. admixed
    b. lathe-cut
    c. spherical
    d. conventional
    e. high copper type
    153 which metal element of cobalt chromium alloy would provide the anti-corrosion property
    a. cobalt
    b. chromium
    c. both
    d. neither
    154 due to the mesial concavity of the maxillary first premolar, prior to condensation of the amalgam, the tooth is best prepared with
    a. wedge only
    b. matrix only
    c. no wedge nor matrix needed
    d. custom made wedge+matrix
    155 which one of the teeth has the most consistent canal
    a. mandibular incisor
    b. mandibular premolar
    c. maxillary canine
    d. maxillary premolar
    e. mandibular molar
    156 maxilla lateral incisor root tip usually tips to
    a. palatal
    b. facial
    c. mesial
    d. distal
    157 which one of the following teeth has a triangular canal shape?
    maxillary central incisor
    158 what is the pupl chamber shape of a mandibular first molar with 4 canals
    a. trapezoidal
    b. triangular
    c. square
    d. oval
    e. ellipse
    159 which one of the following can not be observed on X-ray
    a. canal calcification
    b. root buccal curvature
    c. canal numbers
    d. the apical condition
    160 parallel technique in X-ray taking follows many of the rules to optimize the resultant image except for one, what is this rule?
    a. keep the film and the target tooth as parallel as possible
    b. the incomingcentral ray should be perpendicular to the film and the target tooth
    c. the film should be placed as far to the source of X-ray as possible
    d. the target tooth and film sould be as close as possible.
    161 when the electrons hit the anode from the cathode in an X-ray machine, where does most of the energy turn into
    a. X-ray
    b. Heat
    c. light
    d. Gamma ray
    e. no loss of energy
    162 on a panoramic radiograph there is a soap bubble appearance bilaterally in region of the angle the mandible. The condition most likely is
    a. ameloblastoma
    b. cherubism
    c. ameloblastic fibroma
    d. fibrous dysplasia
    163 radiographically there is a widening of the periodontal ligament space around all the teeth. What is your initial diagnosis
    a. earliest sign of osteosarcoma
    b. scleroderma
    c. hyperparathyroidism
    d. fibrous dysplasia
    164 how will you treat a tooth that has been fracture below the alveolar bone level
    a. wait for it to erupt
    b. extract
    c. endodontically fill the tooth and place a post and core
    165 which nerve may be injury when giving a patient an injection in the buttocks
    a. femoral
    b. sciatic
    c. gastrocnemius
    166 what will make you suspect that a patient has nursing bottle caries
    a. caries buccally on mandibular anterior teeth
    b. caries buccally on maxillary anterior teeth
    167 the apical foramen most often exist the root
    a. at the anatomic apex
    b. 0.5 mm from apex
    c. less than 0.5mm from the apex
    168 the tube of the dental x-ray machine is surrounded by
    a. vacuum
    b. oil
    c. helium
    169 best way of image TMJ
    a. pan
    b. MRI
    c. transcranial
    d. CT
    170 with which local anesthetic injection is one likely to produce a hematoma
    a. mandibular nerve block
    b. posterior superior alveolar nerve block
    c. anterior superior alveolar nerve injection
    d. middle superior alveolar nerve injection
    171in making radiographs, which of the following controls the mean energy of the x-ray
    a. mA
    b. kVp
    c. focal spot size
    d. exposure time
    172 what condition is contraindicated to elective root canal therapy
    a. AIDS
    b. recent MI
    c. leukemia
    d. radiotherapy
    e. 2nd trimester pregnancy
    173 which organism is involved with periodontal disease
    a. P. gingivalis
    b. E species
    c. bacterioids
    d. C. rectus
    e. all of the above
    174 a new patient informs you that he is taking dicumarol daily, what test result will you request to see
    a. PPT
    b. PT
    c. CBC
    d. blood chemistry
    175 which nerve is involved with a Le Forte II fracture
    a. greater palatine
    b. infra orbital
    c. nasopalatine
    d. posterior superior
    176when moving tooth orthodontically where is the center of resistance
    a. at cervical margin
    b. half way down the root
    c. at apex
    d. 2/3 up from the apex
    177 if SNA is 82 and the patient is 90 what is increase
    a protrusive mandible
    b. protrusive maxilla
    c. retrusive mandible
    d retrusive maxilla
    178 a patient has MOD amalgam placed 3 weeks ago and the patient complains of pain with heat since restoration was placed. How will you treat this patient
    a. wait another 3 weeks
    b. endo
    c. extract
    d. place a sedative restoration
    179 what is cement of choice for composite inlays
    a. zinc phosphate
    b. resin cements
    c. polycarboxylate
    180 what percent of lower molar first molar have 4 canals
    a. 15%
    b. 35%
    c. 55%
    d. 2%
    e 25%
    181 a 9 years old girls tells you that “my mom I nagging me all the time to brush my teeth” what should you say in response
    a. would not say anything
    b. clean teeth are healthy teeth
    c. if you do not brush your teeth they will fill out
    d. I see that you are having a problem with your Mom
    182 what is most likely site to perforate when making access for RCT on a tooth #8
    a. distal
    b. facial
    c. lingula
    d. mesial
    183 with a modified Widman flap you mostly reduce bone by
    a. adapt the flap margin
    b. osseous restructuring
    c. removal of infected osseous tissue
    d removal of malignancy tissue
    184 why do clinical remount
    a. adaptation of trial bases and CD are different
    b. compensate for VDO
    c. compensate for improper face bow transfer
    185 all are true for a composite inlay except
    a. rounded internal line
    b. margin in enamel
    c. cavosurface bevel
    186 finding the juvenile periodontitis
    a. margination of the teeth
    b. leukopenia
    c. leukocytosis
    187 which best describes the interpersonal distance zone in which dentist usually treat their patient
    a. social
    b. intimate
    c. public
    d. personal
    188 the treatment of choice for an 8 years old patient who has a 1 mm intrusion of the permanent lateral maxillary incisor is
    a. extract the tooth
    b. allow the tooth to re-erupt
    c. perform pulpotomy
    d. splint the tooth for 10 days
    189 biotransformation is all except
    a. conjugation
    b. covalent bond
    c. hydrolysis
    d. oxidation
    190 when diazepam and atropine are administered together everything happens except
    a. sedation
    b. analgesia
    c. relaxation
    191 principle for occlusal-lingual amalgam preparation
    a. retained by occlusal prep
    b. self retentive immediately past where grooves coalesce
    c. sharp retention
    d. cavosurface bevel
    192 radiographic sign of trauma from occlusion include each of the following except one, which one is this exception
    a. hypercementosis
    b. root resorption
    c. alteration of the lamina dura
    d. alteration of the periodontal ligament
    e. vascular infiltration of the periodontal ligament
    193 which of the following properties of sodium hypochlorite most undesirable
    a. smell
    b. toxicity to viral dentin
    c. tendency to bleach dentin
    d. corrosive actin on endodontics files
    e. reaction with chelating agents
    194 what is activity of caries if seal off with restoration
    a. regresses
    b. no activity
    c. increase
    195 the most frequent site where pain radiate to ear
    a. mandibular premolar
    b. mandibular molar
    c. maxillary molar
    d. maxillary premolar
    196 therapeutic index of a drug indicates the relative
    a. efficacy
    b. potency
    c. safety
    d. duration
    e. solubility
    197 when does cleft palate deformity occur during pregnancy
    a. middle trimester
    b. first trimester
    c. third trimester
    d. at a difficult delivery
    198 all are advantage of hybrid ionomer except
    a. esthetics
    b. bond strength
    c. wear resistance
    d. coefficient of thermal expansion
    199 to correct a posterior cross bite the attachment must be placed on
    a. labial of maxillary and labial of mandibular teeth
    b. lingual maxillary and labial of mandibular teeth
    c. palatal f maxillary and labial of mandibular teeth
    200 the majority of cell in dental pulp are
    a. nerve cell
    b. fibroblasts
    c. Blood vessels
  36. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

    Joined:
    05.28.06
    Messages:
    348
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    its not drug abuse!
  37. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

    Joined:
    05.28.06
    Messages:
    348
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    An enamel pearl is a condition of teeth where enamel is found on locations where enamel is not supposed to be, such as on a root surface. They are found usually in the area between roots, which is called a furcation, of molars. Enamel pearls are not common in teeth with a single root.



    perav is right
  38. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

    Joined:
    05.28.06
    Messages:
    348
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    Contraindications to Nitrous Oxide

    N2O should not be used for patients with bowel obstruction, pneumothorax, middle ear and sinus disease, and following cerebral air-contrast studies. Many anaesthetists feel that use of N2O should be restricted during the first two trimesters of pregnancy because of its effects on DNA production and the experimental and epidemiological evidence that N2O causes undesirable reproductive outcomes. Since N2O affects white blood cell production and function, it has been recommended that N2O not be administered to immunosuppressed patients or to patients requiring multiple general anaesthetics.nitrous oxide is not a barbiturate
  39. LKY

    LKY

    Joined:
    12.23.06
    Messages:
    146
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    29 there are more detached plaques within supragingival plaques that subgingival plaques. The detached plaques within subgingival area are the ones that are more toxic to tissue than attached plaques.
    a. both statements are correct.........true
    b. the first statement is correct but not the second
    c. the first statement is wrong, but second statement is correct
    d. both statements are wrong

    This one the first statement is wrong
    The second statement is right
    answer is C
  40. perav

    perav New Member

    Joined:
    04.24.06
    Messages:
    223
    SDN 2+ Year Member

    yeh true but drug abuse surperseeds lukemia , because N20 is a sedative gas with potential for abuse
  41. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

    Joined:
    05.28.06
    Messages:
    348
    SDN 2+ Year Member

    thats what high pull headgears do..................cervical pull exert a distal DOWNWARDS force on max molars .
  42. perav

    perav New Member

    Joined:
    04.24.06
    Messages:
    223
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    thats right downward force will cause extrusion not intrusion
  43. pinkpeanuts

    pinkpeanuts Senior Member

    Joined:
    02.17.04
    Messages:
    110
    SDN 7+ Year Member
    99 when a child loses its primary second molar before permanent first molar eruption, what is the choice of space maintainer?
    a. lingual holding arch-----For Bilateral loss of Primary 2nd molars
    b. band and loop
    c. distal shoe-----For unilateral loss of Primary second molars
    d. Nance appliance
  44. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

    Joined:
    05.28.06
    Messages:
    348
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    hmmm so all headgears do the same eh? :eek:
  45. mesh

    mesh Junior Member

    Joined:
    05.28.06
    Messages:
    348
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    50 what is the definition of total anterior facial height on a cephalograph
    a. nasion-menton
    b. ANS-menton
    c. A-menton
    d. A-B
  46. LKY

    LKY

    Joined:
    12.23.06
    Messages:
    146
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    A. is wrong.... how can you hold the lingual bar? Permanent first molars are not erupted yet?..and the most posterior teeth are primary first molar. I think the answer left to be Distal shoe or if bilateral, it can used two distal shoe or removable functional space maintainer.
  47. perav

    perav New Member

    Joined:
    04.24.06
    Messages:
    223
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    machine porion ,

    is the point between midway between the highest point of the superior margin of the right and left rods of the cephalostat.these apear as 2 radiographic circles on the radiograph .
  48. LKY

    LKY

    Joined:
    12.23.06
    Messages:
    146
    SDN 2+ Year Member
    B. is the answer ANS-Me it means total height of max and mand bones
  49. pinkpeanuts

    pinkpeanuts Senior Member

    Joined:
    02.17.04
    Messages:
    110
    SDN 7+ Year Member
    LKY...you are absolutely right..My bad!

    1)When primary mandibular right first and second molars are lost in an 8-year-old patient, space is best maintained by constructing and placing

    multiple space maintainers.
    bands on the remaining teeth.
    a functional removable appliance.
    a bilateral nonfunctional space maintainer

    2)The major criterion to differentiate between a true Class III and a pseudo-Class III malocclusion is the

    existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure.
    occlusal relationship between maxillary and mandibular first molars.
    presence of a bilateral crossbite.
    degree of anterior crossbite
  50. LKY

    LKY

    Joined:
    12.23.06
    Messages:
    146
    SDN 2+ Year Member

    1. is bilateral nonfunctional SM

    2. exitence of a forward shift during mand cosure
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