I'm probably not the first to say it, but is anyone else baffled why DSM-5 changed psychotic disorder NOS to the unwieldy mouthful in the thread title. Why not "unspecified psychotic disorder"?
there is an unspecified psychotic disorder. they want you to specify. you wouldn't put that at the diagnosis, you would put whatever it is, for example "traumatic hallucinosis", " persistent auditory hallucinations", "brief limited intermittent psychotic symptoms", "folie a deux", "attenuated psychotic symptoms" followed by (298.8)
i like it, it is supposed to encourage people not to be lazy and say what they are looking at. and if you are lazy you can put "unspecified psychotic disorder" (298.9)
though in general i often don't use DSM-5 terminology or diagnoses
A mentor of mine told me this. He also told me I wouldn't understand what he meant until my professional career went through at least 2 DSMs.
His tidbit of wisdom: Every DSM has something in it that is true genius that the later DSMs did not replicate, and in fact removed. Some examples? Passive-Aggressive Personality Disorder, Ganser's Syndrome, Impulse Control DO NOS.