- Joined
- Jun 4, 2012
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According to AAMC:
D is incorrect because, if the receptors were internalized, dopamine could not be pharmacologically active. Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the outside, not inside, of neurons. This is a Scientific Reasoning and Problem Solving question because it requires the prediction of a scientific outcome.
I don't understand their logic. The logic clearly states that cocaine affects dopamine functionality. If cociane was found to internalize dopamine receptors, then why can't we call that its pharmacological effect?