I was wondering why this was the case as the Berkley Review states this verbatim...
I was wondering why this was the case as the Berkley Review states this verbatim...
This is just the case I was thinking of:
-You have a molecule with two optical stereocenters (one is R and the other is S)
-The S stereocenter has an attatched OH, and is easily susceptible to an SN1 reaction. The R stereocenter has four alkyl groups and cannot participate in any reaction.
-An SN1 reaction then occurs on the S stereocenter
-----> you then have a racemic mixture of RR and RS
a racemic mixture of diastereomers was created from an SN1 reaction of one of the stereocenters of a two stereocenter molecule~~
I don't see how this is incorrect. I seemed to have just demonstrated a creation of a racemic diastereomer product mixture...
Or is it perhaps because the definition of racemic ONLY refers to enantiomers due to their opposite optical rotation??
Hence, even though a 50:50 mix of diastereomers can be made, it is not racemic as the optical rotation is not Zero...
Does a racemic mixture have to have an optical rotation of Zero?
I just discovered the IUPAC GoldBook website recently and it seems to be helpful for "definitions" because IUPAC makes the rules.