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A hypothetical scenario based on a couple of recent cases I've seen.
Consider a patient who 10 years ago developed signs and symptoms of CRPS after an ankle injury, with good documentation in the medical records by a reputable pain physician of skin changes, temperature changes, edema, etc. Exam findings and diagnosis were verified by an independent medical examiner. Following PT and sympathetic blocks, physical exam signs of CRPS completely resolved at that time over a few months. However, pain has reportedly persisted in that area ever since. With 10 years of a normal-appearing leg and no symptoms other than pain itself, would you consider the patient to have CRPS pain at this point?
Consider a patient who 10 years ago developed signs and symptoms of CRPS after an ankle injury, with good documentation in the medical records by a reputable pain physician of skin changes, temperature changes, edema, etc. Exam findings and diagnosis were verified by an independent medical examiner. Following PT and sympathetic blocks, physical exam signs of CRPS completely resolved at that time over a few months. However, pain has reportedly persisted in that area ever since. With 10 years of a normal-appearing leg and no symptoms other than pain itself, would you consider the patient to have CRPS pain at this point?