Hi all, I'm studying using TPR Psych/Soc but I've been getting definitions on the theories a bit mixed up.
Let's take Cannon-Bard Theory as an example.
From what I know, there is some sort of emotional-inducing stimulus that is followed by simultaneous (and independent) physiological arousal and an emotional experience (e.g. fear, anger) which then leads to a behavioral response.
However, according to TPR, the theory states that there is an emotional-inducing stimulus that is followed by a physiological arousal and a "conscious cognitive interpretation" followed by behavioral response then a labeling of emotion. If the labeling of emotion occurs after a behavioral response, then what in the world is the interpretation aspect?
Any help would be appreciated!
Let's take Cannon-Bard Theory as an example.
From what I know, there is some sort of emotional-inducing stimulus that is followed by simultaneous (and independent) physiological arousal and an emotional experience (e.g. fear, anger) which then leads to a behavioral response.
However, according to TPR, the theory states that there is an emotional-inducing stimulus that is followed by a physiological arousal and a "conscious cognitive interpretation" followed by behavioral response then a labeling of emotion. If the labeling of emotion occurs after a behavioral response, then what in the world is the interpretation aspect?
Any help would be appreciated!