Theories of Emotion

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deelee26

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Hi all, I'm studying using TPR Psych/Soc but I've been getting definitions on the theories a bit mixed up.

Let's take Cannon-Bard Theory as an example.

From what I know, there is some sort of emotional-inducing stimulus that is followed by simultaneous (and independent) physiological arousal and an emotional experience (e.g. fear, anger) which then leads to a behavioral response.

However, according to TPR, the theory states that there is an emotional-inducing stimulus that is followed by a physiological arousal and a "conscious cognitive interpretation" followed by behavioral response then a labeling of emotion. If the labeling of emotion occurs after a behavioral response, then what in the world is the interpretation aspect?

Any help would be appreciated!

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I feel like I have been in a similar situation as you, and I found that just having someone put the theories of emotion in their words made it easier. So I will try that:

1) James-Lange Theory: Your emotional reaction that you experience is dependent on the physiological reaction that you have. For example: "my heart is racing, therefore, I must be scared.

2) Cannon-Bard Theory: This theory states that the emotional response and physiological reaction occur at the same time, there is not one influencing the other. Often times you'll see the word "simultaneously" in describing this theory because emotions and physiological reactions occur at the same time, according to this theory.

3) Schachter-Singer Theory (aka Two-factor theory): This theory states that a physiological reaction or arousal occurs and you have a cognitive appraisal of what just happened. Based off of that, the result is an emotion you feel/express. For example: on a test like the MCAT if you are experiencing sweating and heart racing, you will appraise that to the exam you are taking. Conversely, if you have heart racing and sweaty hands and are on a date, you will appraise that to your hot date.
 
Can we go over some examples of the James-Lange Theory?

Scenario 1 = You are walking down an alley, alone, at night and hear footsteps behind you. Your heart starts to race, your breathing deepens and you begin to sweat.
Based on James-Lange Theory where your emotional response is dependant on the physiological arousal, you use the physiological cues and sense an emotion of fear.

Scenario 2 = You are waiting for you date at the restaurant, as he/she walks into the restaurant, your heart starts to beat faster, your breathing deepens, palms sweating - basically the same physiological state as scenario 1. So, using the James-Lange Theory and looking only at the physiological arousal, would you still be having a sense of fear?

Based on this, there are many different situations where the body's physiological arousal is the same. So if we are looking only at the arousal, would we have the same emotion in different situations?
 
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