SDN Members don't see this ad. (About Ads) In my Boston Process class we are training on the WAIS-IV. This is fine. However, in class we got into discussion about the APA ethics code and tests that are being churned outr by Pearson, PAR, and the like. Someone made a comment about WAIS-III now being "outdated" or obsolete. I was surprised at the lack of objection to this in the class and was sitting in the back going "What the hell? Wait, lets think about this for a second please!" So, Im curious: When do tests violate 9.08? When might we ever say an instrument or its norms are out of date? For example, can we still use the MMPI-2 and MMPI-2 codetype interpetations now that we have MMPI-2 RF and MMPI-2 RC? At what point did the PIAT or the original WRAT pass the date of obsolence? One month, one year, two years after its update came? When does a test become too old to use "ethically" anymore? I mean Reitan still advises using the original WAIS with the HRNB, but I dont see anyone filing board complaints against him. And most importantly, how does one go about demonstrating scientifically (or emprically) that the test in question is indeed, "obsolete?" Are we to just throw all the lit (co-normed tests, patterns, etc.) based on the WAIS-III out the window and say its now "obsolete." I mean how do we really know that the WAIS-IV is better than WAIS-III. Just because they (Pearson) say it is? Get real! Keep in mind these tests (WAIS) are developed at the discretion of Pearson, which stands to make a substantial penny from marketing the notion that the WAIS-III is now "obsolete." Was the new test development motivated by psychologists who expressed significant dissatisfication with existing versions of these tests. Or by corporate interest in having a new product to sell? (rehetorical question) So, in other words "when they build it, do we have to come?" If so, why exactly?