Hello all and thanks for any advice that you might give me. I'm a fourth year medical student on my sub-internship in the ICU. I've got a lady whom we have managed to bring back from the brink of death (ARDS/sepsis/on a rotaprone, etc.), but she's still hanging out in the ICU with a white count >20K and fevers spiking to the 103 range every day. The quick and dirty is that this lovely lady had a lap appy at OSH, developed sepsis 2/2 peritonitis, got better with abx. THEN she developed a pelvic abscess which was drained by IR, and again got better with abx. Thankfully she's been off pressors for about ten days now and is clinically much improved, but still remains septic. Now for the question. This is a lady whose CT scans show marked decrease in size of pelvic abscess with drain still in place and a little stable free fluid in the pelvis. She also has thickened GB wall with pericholecystic fluid. She ALSO has AST/ALT/Alk Phos about 4x normal (with normal hep panels) and a HIDA that shows filling of the GB, but EF of -181.4% (read as marked nonfunction of GB). She ALSO has induration and warmth over her RUQ with TTP. Now I know that scan rules out ACUTE cholecystitis, but what about acalculous or gangrenous? I'm sort of out of ideas. She's negative blood, urine, sputum, c. diff. Any thoughts?