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My understanding is that ectopia lentis is often associated with Marfan Syndrome. Are there varying degrees of lens subluxation such that an ophthalmologist could identify such a thing even when the patient in question is asymptomatic (other than mild myopia...which of course may be due to something other than ectopia lentis)?
Would it be reasonable/unreasonable to refer such a patient to an ophthalmologist to assist in arriving at a diagnosis?
Thanks for any thoughts!
Would it be reasonable/unreasonable to refer such a patient to an ophthalmologist to assist in arriving at a diagnosis?
Thanks for any thoughts!