I'm just curious. I was reading an audiology text and pondering the many different possible causes of tinnitus. Then I got curious... do we know of any studies (basic searches left me with more questions than answers) that have considered people with 'dead ears' or no cochlear function? What did they find? Do people with no cochlear function still experience tinnitus?
Does tinnitus occur in patients with 'dead ears' or no cochlear function?
- Thread starter rEliseMe
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Many sources will tell you that tinnitus is more prevalent in those with more severe SNHL. I can say for sure if that includes dead ears. There are many cases of tinnitus in which the source of the disturbance seems to clearly be beyond the cochlear, on the neural level, so I would think that it is entirely possible.
Most of the audiology-related reading I do is on tinnitus, but it's still stands to me as such a fascinating and elusive condition. It's what I hope to concentrate my research on...after my multiple, multiple remaining ed. years are over.
Most of the audiology-related reading I do is on tinnitus, but it's still stands to me as such a fascinating and elusive condition. It's what I hope to concentrate my research on...after my multiple, multiple remaining ed. years are over.
Do you happen to still have citations for those cases lying around? I'd love to read the reports.
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Yes, tinnitus can occur in a "dead" ear.
http://www.audiologyonline.com/askexpert/display_question.asp?question_id=39
http://www.audiologyonline.com/askexpert/display_question.asp?question_id=39
I'll read that today at work, haha.
