Because I have expressed interest in anesthesia, they are letting me follow the block team around. I'm learning a lot, but I'm not able to put anything into perspective, especially when I'm hearing different things from different attendings and fellows.
One guy I work with says the suprclavicular block is the spinal of the upper extremity.
Another guy says the Interscalene Block is better for the shoulder, and because it blocks the three trunks of the brachial plexus, it gets everything that the supraclavicular block can hope for, and then some.
I'm not smart (or experienced) to know who's right. (And I'm not about to correct either of my superiors.) But the Interscalene Guy did ask me to make the case for the Supraclavicular Block.
If the interscalene block deposits anesthetic at the level of the trunks (C5-T1), then why isn't that better than placing local anesthetic more distally, where the brachial plexus may have become five or six divisions, or more distally still (axillary block), where we are trying to identify specific branches?
Interscalene Guy is a big fan of Einstein's logic that if you can't explain something to the level of a six-year old, then you don't understand it yourself. (I'm a fan of Reddit, who has a whole subreddit (ELI5: Explain Like I'm Five) that borrows Einstein's logic.)
I don't know enough to know why Interscalene Guy is wrong. The "spinal of the upper extremity" ought to be placing local anesthetic as close to the spinal cord as possible. Or, so it seems to me.
Can anybody put it in simple terms for me? (And, yes, I've searched, and express my thanks to BladeMDA for Best Upper Extremity Block under U/S and everybody who contributed to Distal radius and proximal humerus fractures .)
One guy I work with says the suprclavicular block is the spinal of the upper extremity.
Another guy says the Interscalene Block is better for the shoulder, and because it blocks the three trunks of the brachial plexus, it gets everything that the supraclavicular block can hope for, and then some.
I'm not smart (or experienced) to know who's right. (And I'm not about to correct either of my superiors.) But the Interscalene Guy did ask me to make the case for the Supraclavicular Block.
If the interscalene block deposits anesthetic at the level of the trunks (C5-T1), then why isn't that better than placing local anesthetic more distally, where the brachial plexus may have become five or six divisions, or more distally still (axillary block), where we are trying to identify specific branches?
Interscalene Guy is a big fan of Einstein's logic that if you can't explain something to the level of a six-year old, then you don't understand it yourself. (I'm a fan of Reddit, who has a whole subreddit (ELI5: Explain Like I'm Five) that borrows Einstein's logic.)
I don't know enough to know why Interscalene Guy is wrong. The "spinal of the upper extremity" ought to be placing local anesthetic as close to the spinal cord as possible. Or, so it seems to me.
Can anybody put it in simple terms for me? (And, yes, I've searched, and express my thanks to BladeMDA for Best Upper Extremity Block under U/S and everybody who contributed to Distal radius and proximal humerus fractures .)