- Joined
- Jul 11, 2001
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I have a question about eyes. Do the same genes control both eyes, or is it very likely that someone will have two different prescriptions for each eye?
For example, if someone sees almost perfectly in one eye with a little bit of astigmatism and slightly hyperopic, but the other eye is much worse with astigmatism with a considerable degree of myopia. My question is this: is it likely that that was genetically endowed? I notice myself looking more with my ?good? eye, and sometimes tilting my head towards it to look straight.
I have read that they refractive power of the eye will not develop if you don?t use those muscles too much. So theoretically the cause of my poor vision in one eye could be my tendency to use the other eye more. It could also work the other way around though, and that is what I am trying to figure out. Is it likely (are there a lot of people with drastically different vision in both eyes?
If not, and if it is likely that my weak eye is weak because of lack of use, how can I strengthen it?
Thanks for reading and thank you for all your answers.
For example, if someone sees almost perfectly in one eye with a little bit of astigmatism and slightly hyperopic, but the other eye is much worse with astigmatism with a considerable degree of myopia. My question is this: is it likely that that was genetically endowed? I notice myself looking more with my ?good? eye, and sometimes tilting my head towards it to look straight.
I have read that they refractive power of the eye will not develop if you don?t use those muscles too much. So theoretically the cause of my poor vision in one eye could be my tendency to use the other eye more. It could also work the other way around though, and that is what I am trying to figure out. Is it likely (are there a lot of people with drastically different vision in both eyes?
If not, and if it is likely that my weak eye is weak because of lack of use, how can I strengthen it?
Thanks for reading and thank you for all your answers.