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There's a lot made of whether a gastric ulcer pain vs duodenal ulcer pain becomes more or less with eating in various textbooks. However, I've heard that the notion of differentiating one from the other on such clinical grounds is losing favour because there is so much overlap in the generalities that are made.
I got a question on usmlerx which based getting the answer correct on whether the pain was greater or lesser with meals. Does the exam also test it this way or has it abandoned the differentiation of gastric and duodenal uclers on purely clinical grounds?
I got a question on usmlerx which based getting the answer correct on whether the pain was greater or lesser with meals. Does the exam also test it this way or has it abandoned the differentiation of gastric and duodenal uclers on purely clinical grounds?