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Could someone please clarify as to the difference between the "null allele effect" and the "dominant negative effect"?
Please give examples!!
USMLE Rx uses osteogenesis imperfecta for dominant negative effect to illustrate that the collagen product from the mutant allele directly enervates (i.e. "damages") the collagen structure.
For some reason, I had had the perception that osteogenesis imperfecta demonstrates the null allele effect, not the dominant negative effect, in the sense that it is not the abnormal gene product that directly induces the actual damaging effect, but instead it's the mere lack of normal product that results in structural weakening.
It appears as though internet sources say both, which obviously isn't helpful.
Regardless, if someone could comment on OI with respect to the null vs dominant negative effect and/or also give an example of each, that's be so great!
~Phloston
Please give examples!!
USMLE Rx uses osteogenesis imperfecta for dominant negative effect to illustrate that the collagen product from the mutant allele directly enervates (i.e. "damages") the collagen structure.
For some reason, I had had the perception that osteogenesis imperfecta demonstrates the null allele effect, not the dominant negative effect, in the sense that it is not the abnormal gene product that directly induces the actual damaging effect, but instead it's the mere lack of normal product that results in structural weakening.
It appears as though internet sources say both, which obviously isn't helpful.
Regardless, if someone could comment on OI with respect to the null vs dominant negative effect and/or also give an example of each, that's be so great!
~Phloston