Not a drug *allergy,* but...

[closertofine]

would a bad side effect from one drug be likely to occur if you gave another drug in the same class? More specifically, if someone had nausea and vomiting from one sulfa drug...and you were going to try a different sulfa drug, for a different indication, different type of drug except for the sulfa moiety (e.g. Bactrim vs Zonisamide)...would they be likely to get the nausea and vomiting again?

Thanks!

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[ShyRem]

Not necessarily. For example: if I take Vicodin I projectile vomit like a pro. I could probably hit a target 6 feet away. I also walk into walls - not because I don't see them, but because I just don't *care* that they're there. However, I haven't had the same reaction on any other narcotic or pain medication so far.

 

[Koko]

would a bad side effect from one drug be likely to occur if you gave another drug in the same class? More specifically, if someone had nausea and vomiting from one sulfa drug...and you were going to try a different sulfa drug, for a different indication, different type of drug except for the sulfa moiety (e.g. Bactrim vs Zonisamide)...would they be likely to get the nausea and vomiting again?

Thanks!

As far as non-allergic rxns, no, not necessarily.

 

[VCU07]

would a bad side effect from one drug be likely to occur if you gave another drug in the same class? More specifically, if someone had nausea and vomiting from one sulfa drug...and you were going to try a different sulfa drug, for a different indication, different type of drug except for the sulfa moiety (e.g. Bactrim vs Zonisamide)...would they be likely to get the nausea and vomiting again?

Thanks!

I agree with the other posts...not necessarily. For example, some drugs in a class may have less adverse effects. For example, Ampicillin vs. Amoxil causing diarrhea. Some patients may have continued sensitivity to other drugs in the same class. It just depends on individual patient factors.

 

[Chronic Student]

The other thing to consider is that each time you show the body the same antigenic stimulus or a similar one, there is the possibility of the reaction worsening.

-Mike

 

[Koko]

The other thing to consider is that each time you show the body the same antigenic stimulus or a similar one, there is the possibility of the reaction worsening.

-Mike

True for allergic reactions, not for adverse effects.

 

[Chronic Student]

That's a mighty fine hair your splitting!

The example used was N/V, which can be an allergic response or an adverse effect.

-Mike

 

[trudub]

It really is not a fine hair though. Adverse effects are not immunologically mediated while allergic effects are. So, because the mechanisms are different, the body is sensitized to allergic effects but is not sensitized to adverse effects in the same way.

 

[Chronic Student]

The example used was N/V, which can be an allergic response or an adverse effect.

Once again, I refer to the example used and I was replying to that specific example.

Otherwise, you are 100% correct.

Although, it's very hard to distinguish in-between the two when the patient is in front of you and that is their only symptom.

-Mike