part 2...

[shuntyman]

ne body giving part 2 during this time?? v can discuss the questions.... contribute to the thread

TRY TO GIVE CORRECT ANSWERS AS MUCH AS POSSIBLE.... PLS DONT BLUFF.... IF POSSIBLE PROVIDE THE LINK TO THE REFRENCE OF YOUR ANSWERS..... AND JUST ONE ANSWER TO THE QUESTION(AVOID MULTIPLE ANSWERS)

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[smiles2009]

great idea ..count me in

 

[vijaggi]

m also in ..

 

[hydhaval]

i just started preparation for part 2, want to give exam in mid june, when you guys are planning to give exam?

 

[gotadoit]

i m also interested... juz started wid prep.. takin it in may or 1st week of june

 

[DrNush]

ne body giving part 2 during this time?? v can discuss the questions.... contribute to the thread

im takin it at the end of this month.
couple of questions -

1.) which perforation has the best prognosis?
apical, floor of the pulp chamber, or crown?

i thought it would be crown cuz u can do a restoration immediately, but the answer is apical -why is that?

2.) what is the best treatment for a 2.0 mm 2nd molar exposure in a 12 yr old patient?

direct pulp capping, indirect pulp capping, apexogenesis, apexification

i thought the answer would be apexogenesis cuz the root will not be fully formed, so u would do a pulpotomy (2 mm too big for pulp capping), close it off and let the root form physiologically. answer is apexification. why???
isnt apexification only for a completely NONVITAL pulp? in this case, wouldn't the radicular pulp be vital?

if anyone can help me out w/ these q's i'd appreciate it!

thanks!

 

[gaya]

count me too i have just started my preparation

 

[Rissas]

I'll begin q bank tomorow...

 

[shuntyman]

These qyestions were previously discussed on sdn ..... i am just repeating it .... hread

TRY TO GIVE CORRECT ANSWERS AS MUCH AS POSSIBLE.... PLS DONT BLUFF.... IF POSSIBLE PROVIDE THE LINK TO THE REFRENCE OF YOUR ANSWERS..... AND JUST ONE ANSWER TO THE QUESTION(AVOID MULTIPLE ANSWERS)
An earring on a dpt is located
a) on the opposite side maxilla
b) on the opposite side mandible
c) on the same maxilla
d) on the same mandible
The answer is either A or B. Its a tough one cause it depends on the size of the earring. Which one would you choose?

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
a) divergent roots
b) close roots
c) enamel pearls
d) bifurcation ridge
I have no idea

Maxillary expansion. What is least likely to happen:
a) Overbite
b) Overjet
c) Increase molar length in the upper
d) Increase molar length in the lower
I think its D

Extraction is contraindicated in (pick many)
a) patient had a heart attack 2 weeks ago
b) Factor VIII def.
c) Pregnant for 4 months
d) Hypothyroidism
Tricky

Cause of numb lip (pick many)
a) bells palsy
b) fracture of mandible
c) trigeminal neuralgia
Can only be B. Palsy causes dropping of the face and not a numb lip. Neuralgia is pain and also not a numb lip. Correct me if wrong.
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what is the problem if u want to perform apically repositioned flap surgey in mandibular 2nd and 3rd molar areas
a)external oblique ridge
b)poor blood supply-Ans

which nerve is injured in leforte II fracture
a)infraorbital -Ans
b)PSA

what is the favourable site for implant succes..i mean which qudrant
ant mand most successful
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Enamel Maturation is completed
- after eruption
- at the time of eruption
- before eruption
- before eruption but after the root starts to form

A little tricky. My text book says before eruption. However, there are post-maturation changes that occurs when saliva interacts with enamel. It all depends on weather the examiners think that post-maturation changes are included in the entire process of "Enamel Maturation".

Each causes Hairy Leukoplakia except:
- Steroids
- Mouth Wash
- Antibiotics
- Candida
I got no idea. I only know that Epstein Barr virus causes it. It can also be caused by irritation and smoking. I suppose I can lean towards "Antibiotics" because all the rest might cause some sort of irritation. However that is a pure guess.

Furcation involvement with the worse prognosis
- divergent roots
- close roots
- enamel pearls
- bifurcation ridge
I think its close roots. The worse prognosis means the most difficult to clean. Its more difficult to clean close roots than divergent. But i'm not sure about how enamel pearls and a bifurcation ridge would influence this. What do you think?

The Most addictive drug is
- morphine
- codeine
- hydrocodone
Has to be morphine

Pressure for denture relines is placed on
- the ridges
- the teeth
- on the rests
- on the clasps
Not sure

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the apical region of a non-vital tooth with a deep carious lesion may
radiographically show
1. widening of the periodontal space
2. loss of lamina dura
3. a circumscribed radiolucency
4. calcification of the periodontal membrane
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above


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selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental films is influenced by
a. line voltage fluctuation
b. diameter of the primary beam of radiation
c. type of timer
d. tissue density
e. filter thickness

radiographically, the opening of the incisive canal may
be misdiagnosed as a
1. branchial cyst
2. nasopalatine cyst
3. nasolabial cyst
4. radicular cyst
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above

which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival?
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma
d. adenocarcinoma

which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
a. salivary gland
b. teeth
c. sweat gland
d hair
e. fingernails

which one of the following would be of greatest value in determining the etiology of an oral ulceration?
a. history of the lesion
b. cytologic smear
c. systemic evaluation
d. laboratory tests

an examination of a patient who hass fallen on their chin and fractured the right subcondylar region would reveal
1. trismus
2 deflection of the mandible to the left
3. pain and tenderness
4. paresthesia of the rigth lower lip
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above

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1. A cold stimulus applied to a tooth will produce a
hypersensitive response if the tooth
A. is nonvital.
B. has a periodontal pocket.
C. has a hyperemic pulp
D. has chronic proliferative pulpitis.
5. Which treatment procedure is indicated for a
patient with asymptomatic age related gingival
recession?
A. Connective tissue graft.
B. Gingivoplasty.
C. Lateral sliding flap.
D. Gingival graft.
E. No treatment.
8. The instrument best suited for root planing is a/an
A. hoe.
B. file.
C. curette.
D. sickle scaler.
E. ultrasonic scaler.
10. Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can
be expected from tissue that is
A. fibroedematous.
B. edematous.
C. fibrotic.
D. formed within an infrabony pocket.
E. associated with exudate formation.
11. When using the periodontal probe to measure
pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the
A. base of the pocket to the cementoenamel
junction.
B. free gingival margin to the
cementoenamel junction.
C. base of the pocket to the crest of the free
gingiva.
D. base of the pocket to the mucogingival
junction.
12. In periodontal therapy, "guided tissue
regeneration" is most successful in treating
1. horizontal bone loss.
2. a 3-walled infrabony defect.
3. a mandibular Class III furcation
involvement.
4. a mandibular Class II furcation
involvement.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only.
E. All of the above.
13. The oral mucosa covering the base of the alveolar
bone
A. is normally non-keratinized but can
become keratinized in response to
physiological stimulation.
B. is closely bound to underlying muscle
and bone.
C. does not contain elastic fibres.
D. merges with the keratinized gingiva at the
mucogingival junction.
E. has a tightly woven dense collagenous
corium.
22. Water irrigation devices have been shown to
A. eliminate plaque.
B. dislodge food particles from between
teeth.
C. disinfect pockets for up to 18 hours.
D. prevent calculus formation.
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached
gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap.
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.
24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva.
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
25. Irregularly distributed shallow to moderate craters
in the interseptal bone are best eliminated by
A. osteoplasty.
B. gingivoplasty.
C. deep scaling.
D. bone grafting.
28. The mechanism of adjustment to maintain the
shape and proportions of bone throughout its
growth period is called
A. remodeling.
B. cortical drift.
C. area relocation. .
D. translatory growth.
35. When odontoblasts are destroyed or undergo
degeneration, they are replaced by
A. ameloblasts.
B. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells.
C. multinucleated giant cells.
D. osteoblasts.
36. The periodontium is best able to tolerate forces
directed to a tooth
A. horizontally.
B. laterally.
C. obliquely.
D. vertically.
37. The major stimulator of respiration is
A. low blood pressure.
B. high percentage of blood oxygen.
C. low percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
D. high percentage of blood carbon dioxide.
41. Following root planing, a patient experiences
thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with
which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
44. Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in the
largest numbers in response to the accumulation of
plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.
45. Carious lesions are most likely to develop if a
patient has
A. a high lactobacillus count.
B. saliva with low buffering capacity.
C. plaque on his teeth.
D. lactic acid in his mouth.
49. An increase of immunoglobulins is consistent with
increased numbers of
A. fibroblasts.
B. neutrophils.
C. lymphocytes.
D. plasma cells.
52. Antihistamines act by
A. increasing the action of histaminase.
B. altering the formation of histamine.
C. blocking the actions of histamine by
competitive inhibition.
D. interfering with the degradation of
histamine.
62. An end result of ionizing radiation used to treat
oral malignancies is
A. deformity of the jaws.
B. reduced vascularity of the jaws.
C. increased vascularity of the jaws.
D. increased brittleness of the jaws.
64. Which of the following is most often associated
with a nonvital tooth?
A. Chronic periradicular periodontitis.
B. Internal resorption.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Hyperplastic pulpitis.
67. Selection of the appropriate kilovoltage for dental
films is influenced by
A. line voltage fluctuation.
B. diameter of the primary beam of
radiation.
C. type of timer.
D. tissue density.
E. filter thickness.
68. In radiography, minimum magnification and
maximum definition are achieved by
A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
B. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and
maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance).
D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and
minimum FFD (focal-film distance).
70. During the setting phase, a dental stone mixture
will exhibit
A. expansion.
B. contraction.
C. loss in compressive strength.
D. gain in moisture content.
72. Which of the following modifications to the
standard procedure for mixing gypsum products
will increase the compressive strength of the set
material?
A. Adding a small amount of salt to the
water before mixing.
B. Decreasing the water/powder ratio by a
small amount.
C. Using warmer water.
D. Decreasing the mixing time.
74. The higher modulus of elasticity of a chromiumcobalt-
nickel alloy, compared to a Type IV gold
alloy, means that chromium-cobalt-nickel partial
denture clasp will require
A. a heavier cross section for a clasp arm.
B. a shorter retentive arm.
C. more taper.
D. a shallower undercut.
76. Dental porcelain has
1. low compressive strength.
2. high hardness.
3. high tensile strength.
4. low impact strength.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
D. high blood pressure.
E. cardiac arrhythmia.
82. Particulate hydroxyapatite, when placed
subperiostially,
1. is highly biocompatible.
2. has a low incidence of secondary
infection following surgery.
3. has a tendency to migrate following
insertion.
4. induces bone formation throughout the
implanted material.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
92. A 15 year old presents with hypoplastic enamel on
tooth 1.5. All other teeth are normal. This was
most probably caused by a/an
A. vitamin D deficiency.
B. generalized calcium deficiency.
C. high fever encountered by the patient
when he had measles at age 3.
D. infection of tooth 5.5 during the
development of tooth 1.5.
E. hereditary factor.
96. Root resorption of permanent teeth may be
associated with
1. excessive orthodontic forces.
2. chronic periradicular periodontitis.
3. traumatic injury.
4. periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
97. In the early stage, a periapical abscess can be
differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
A. pain.
B. type of exudate.
C. tenderness to percussion.
D. response of pulp to electrical stimulation.
E. radiographic examination.
100. Which of the following conditions is characterized
by abnormally large pulp chambers?
A. Amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. Regional odontodysplasia.
C. Dentinogenesis imperfecta.
D. Dentinal dysplasia Type I.
102. An ankylosed tooth is usually
A. nonvital.
B. associated with a root fracture.
C. infraerupted.
D. found in the permanent dentition.
E. Down's syndrome.
106. For which of the following pathological conditions
would a lower central incisor tooth be expected to
respond to heat, cold and electric pulp test?
A. Apical cyst.
B. Acute apical abscess.
C. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
D. Chronic apical periodontitis.
107. Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased
mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may
be found in
A. squamous cell carcinoma.
B. carcinoma in situ.
C. papillofibroma.
D. endothelioma.
109. When a patient experiences continuous pain in the
maxillary premolar and molar areas and there is no
evidence of dental infection, the most likely
diagnosis is
A. trigeminal neuralgia.
B. acute maxillary sinusitis.
C. impacted maxillary canine.
D. impacted maxillary third molar.
E. glossopharyngeal neuralgia.
111. Which one of the following would be of greatest
value in determining the etiology of an oral
ulceration?
A. History of the oral lesion.
B. Cytological smear.
C. Systemic evaluation.
D. Laboratory tests.
113. A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid
swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has
A. Mumps.
B. sialolithiasis.
C. acute bacterial sialadenitis.
D. Sjögren's syndrome.
E. sarcoidosis.
114. Which of the following sites for squamous cell
carcinoma has the best prognosis?
A. Lower lip.
B. Retromolar area.
C. Gingiva.
D. Buccal mucosa.
E. Hard palate.
133. Dietary deficiency of vitamin D can result in
A. abnormal formation of osteoid.
B. osteitis fibrosa cystica.
C. Paget's disease.
D. myositis ossificans.
E. osteogenesis imperfecta.

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please do you have answers to these questions? thanks
In a Class II amalgam cavity preparation, what is the purpose of breaking contact at the gingival cavosurface?

What is the purpose of placing retention grooves and where are they placed?

Which feature provides the bond onlay the most retention?
what are Schedule II Drugs???

What is the most likely diagnosis of a bilateral white macule on the floor of the mouth?

The percentage of specific local anesthetic that is present in the base form when injected in tissue of 7.4pH, what happens to the onset of action and duration of action?

During injection of the posterior superior alveolar nerve (PSA) a swelling suddenly occurs, what most likely happened? What is the treatment for this?

Which injection most likely has a positive aspiration?

What is the purpose of beveling at the MON cavosurface?


pt is 18yo, has tingling sensation in lower lip, painless /hard swelling on lower PM, pt noticed swelling 3 wks ago, in radio, loss of cortex and diffused radiating pattern of trabeculae...dig?

a. leukemia,
b. ossifying fibroma
c. osteosarcoma
d. hyperparathyroidm
e. dentigerous cyst.

ans C. anyone knows why a is not an answer. and C is the best answer?

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premature loss of a primary maxillary second molar usually produces a malocclusion in the permanent dentition that is characterized by
a. anterior crowding
b. labially displaced maxillary canines
c. a class II molar relationship on the affected side
d. a class III molar relationship on the affected side

a 7 yr old patient has a left unilateral posterior crossbite and a left functional shift of the mandible. the most appropriate treatment for this patient is
a. bilateral expansion of the maxillary arch
b. unilateral expansion of a maxillary arch
c. placement of a maxillary repositioning device
d. observation until the permanent teeth erupt
e. bilateral constriction of the mandibular arch

an 8 yr old patient with all primary molars still present exhibit a cusp-to-cusp relationship of permanent maxillary and mandibular first molars. the management of this patient should be to

a. plan serial extraction for more normal adjustment of the occlusion
b. refer the patient to an orthodontist for consultation
c. place a cervical headgear to reposition maxillary molars
d. disk the distal surfaces of primary mandibular second molars to allow normal adjustment of permanent molars
e. observe

a major disadvantage of the cervical headgear used for some orthodontic treatment is the risk

a. intrusion of maxillary canines
b. extrusion of maxillary incisors
c. extrusion of maxillary molars
d. deformity of the neck
e. psychological trauma due to appearance

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1.on bitewing radiograph of posterior teeth, which of the following is most likely to be misdiagnosed as proximal caries?

a. cej*
b. marginal ridge
c. carabelli cusp
d. calculus
e. cemental tears

2. in the early stage, a periapical abscess can be differentiated from a lateral periodontal abscess by
a. pain
b. type of exudate
c. tenderness to percussion
d. response of pulp to percussion*
e. radiographic examination

3. which of the following tumors has the best prognosis in terms of patient survival
a. osteosarcoma
b. melanoma
c. ameloblastoma*
d. adenocarcinoma

4. if an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most obvious clinical sign will be
a. trismus*
b. facial swelling
c. swelling in the submandibular area
d. rise in the body temperature above 38C (102F)

5. immediately following a posterior superior alveolar block injection, the patient's face becomes quickly and visibly swollen. the immediate treatment should be to
a. use pressure followed by cold packs over swelling*
b. use hot packs over swelling
c. refer the patient to a hospital
d. administer 100mg hydrocortisone intravenously
e. administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride (benadryl) 50mg intravenously

6. trismus is frequently caused by
a. tetanus*
b. muscular dystrophy
c. infection
d. mandibular fracture

7. Acquired Immune Deficiency syndrome (AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats
3. extreme malaise, fever and chills
4. a smooth and red tongue
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c.2&4 d.4 only e. all of the above*

8. which properties increase the tendency of a drug to cross membranes
a. non-ionized and high lipid solubility*
b. non-ionized and low lipid solubility
c. ionized and low lipid solubility
d. ionized and water solubility

9. which of the following would you prescribe for an anxious patient with peptic ulcer
a. reserpine
b. scopolamine
c. silica gel
d. diazepam*
e. calcium carbonate

10. a patient with non-healing lesion on the side of the nose. it has a rolled border and has been increasing in size. the most likely diagnosis is
a. a sebaceous cyst
b. a basal cell carcinoma*
c. lupus erythematosus
d. verruca vulgaris
e. an epulis
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1.which of the following is/are true regarding diazepam?
1. its long duration of action is partly due to active metabolites
2. it does not produce antianxiety effects after intramuscular administration
3. intravenous administration is more reliable than oral
4. its sedative effect can reversed by naloxone
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above

2. an acute periapical abscess originating from a mandibular third molar generally points and drains in the
a. submandibular
b. pterygomandibular
c. buccal vestibule
d. buccal space

3. during extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. the tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. you should
a. remove both and suture
b. leave both and stabilize, if possible
c. remove both, fill the defect with gelfoam and suture
d. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture

4.a 5yr old child presents with yellow pigmentation of the deciduous teeth which under ultraviolet light gives a bright yellow flourescence. this is diagnostic of of
a. tetracycline pigmentation
b. pigmentation associated with chromogenic bacteria
c. amelogenesis imperfecta
d, enamel hypoplasia

5. which of the following patients should be referred for orthodontic treatment to close a diastema between maxillary central incisors?
1. an 8 yr old with no oral habits
2. a 14 yr old with no abnormal oral habits
3. 3 yr old with a 4mm overjet
4. an 8 yr old with previous thumb habit

a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above

6. a disease of childhood characterized by mental ******ation, delayed growth and delayed tooth eruption may be caused by deficient
a. thyroid hormone
b. testicular hormone
c. posterior pituitary hormone
d. anterior pituitary growth hormone

7. bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. WBC
2. hemoglobin count
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4. platelet count

a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above

8. a characteristic of the periodontium which allows safe temporary separation of the teeth is the
a. nature of acellular cementum
b. elasticity of bone
c. modified continuous eruption
d. passive eruption
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Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form
calculus is
A. promoted by a higher buffering
capacity.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering
capacity.
C. inhibited by a higher pH.
D. promoted by a higher pH.

A 60-year old patient requests the
replacement of tooth 4.6, which was extracted
many years ago. Tooth 1.6 has extruded
1.8mm into the space of the missing tooth.
The three unit fixed bridge replacing the
mandibular first molar should be fabricated
A. to the existing occlusion.
B. after extracting tooth 1.6 and
replacing it with a fixed partial
denture.
C. after restoring tooth 1.6 to a more
normal plane of occlusion.
D. after devitalizing and preparing tooth
1.6 for a cast crown.


A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels
unwell following the administration of a local
anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This
condition does not respond to placing the patient in
a supine position. The most likely cause is
A. syncope.
B. adrenal insufficiency.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. hypoglycemia.
E. carotid sinus reflex

A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5 and
3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have
different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A
semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than
preparing the teeth again. Where should the male
part of the attachment ideally be located?
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic.
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer.
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

The best means of extending the working time of
an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is
to
A. extend spatulation time.
B. add additional water.
C. use cold water.
D. add a small amount of borax.
E. add potassium sulfate

A cast post and core is used to
1. provide intraradicular venting.
2. strengthen a weakened tooth.
3. redirect the forces of occlusion.
4. provide retention for a cast crown.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain
is
A. better colour.
B. less shrinkage.
C. more translucency.
D. increased strength.

A 4-year old child has a normal
complement of deciduous teeth, but in
appearance they are grayish and exhibit
extensive occlusal and incisal wear.
Radiographic examination indicates some
extensive deposits of secondary dentin in
these teeth. This condition is typical of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis).
B. amelogenesis imperfecta.
C. neonatal hypoplasia.
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta

A 6-year old patient has a larger than average
diastema between the maxillary central incisors.
The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens.
In order to manage the diastema, you should
extract the mesiodens
A. after its complete eruption.
B. once the patient has reached the age of
12.
C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion.
D. as soon as possible.

When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient
with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be
taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position.

Which of the following should be checked first
when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot
be seated on its abutment?
A. The occlusal contacts.
B. The taper of the preparation.
C. The proximal contacts.
D. The impression used to pour the cast.

Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not suitable
for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed
partial dentures because of
A. high viscosity.
B. low pH.
C. high solubility in saliva.
D. adverse pulp response.

Which of the following conditions would NOT
require antibiotic premedication before endodontic
therapy?
A. Valvular heart disease.
B. Cardiac prosthesis.
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.
D. Immuno-suppressive therapy.
E. Organ transplant.

A 42 year-old lethargic patient complains of
constipation, weakness and fatigue. The clinical
examination reveals dry skin, facial swelling and
diffuse enlargement of the tongue. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
E. Addison's Disease.

A vital canine is to be used as the anterior
abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it
has 2mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The
most acceptable foundation restoration would be
A. a bonded amalgam.
B. a pin retained amalgam core build-up.
C. a pin retained composite resin core buildup.
D. intentional devitalization followed by a
post and core restoration.

Benzodiazepines have all of the following
actions EXCEPT
A. muscle relaxation.
B. sedation.
C. amnesia.
D. anticonvulsant action.
E. analgesia.

After performing an apicoectomy, which of the
following should be placed in the bony defect
prior to suturing the flap?
A. Corticosteroids.
B. Antibiotic powder.
C. Oxidized cellulose.
D. Bone wax.
E. Nothing.

Which of the following combinations of
milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation
with the maximum penetration?
A. 10kVp - 65ma
B. 85kVp - 5ma
C. 90kVp - 10ma
D. 65kVp - 15ma
E. 75kVp - 40ma


Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis.
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
4. a smooth and red tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

During drug-receptor interaction, local
anaesthetics interfere with the transport of
which of the following ions?
A. Sodium.
B. Calcium.
C. Chloride.
D. Potassium.
E. Magnesium.

Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in
the largest numbers in response to the
accumulation of plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.

Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray
beam to
A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density.
C. reduce exposure time.
D. reduce patient radiation dose

Benign neoplasms
1. grow slowly.
2. are generally painless.
3. can be managed conservatively.
4. can metastasize.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Which of the following would be a
CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin
bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched
bridge or "Maryland Bridge")?
A. Class II malocclusion.
B. An opposing free end saddle
removable partial.
C. Previous orthodontic treatment.
D. Heavily restored abutment.

When removing bone or sectioning roots of
teeth with a high-speed handpiece, the
air/water combination should be set with
A. air and water on.
B. water only.
C. air only.
D. neither air nor water.

 

[shuntyman]

1- Normal amount of fluoride in water (ppm). And more questions about fluoride.
2- Most common caries: interprox, smooth surf., fits & fissures, roots.
3- Amount of epi in one carp with 1:100,000.
4- Sedation used in a pregnant woman who's breastfeeding.
5- Stages of a shock
6- Treatment for chronic periodontitis
7- Lots on behavioral sciences
8- The instrument for carving the beavel on a prox. surf for a gold onlay. The options were something like: 14-90-25-08. I had no idea about that one, and the other options were something similar.
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10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true

16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption

22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers


41. to enhance a patient's comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist
a. inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
b. have an axillary staff member present in the operatory
c. assert control using a directive interviewing style
d. provide an immediate evaluation of the patient's oral health
e. maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy

53. symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.

56. which of the following BEST describes adjunctive orthodontics treatment
a. orthodontic therapy performed only with removable appliance
b. limited orthodontics treatment to align the front teeth for maximum esthetics
c. orthodontic treatment to enhance restorative and periodontal rehabilitation
d. early treatment of orthodontic problems to prevent more serious malocclusion

62. the pulpal floor is perforated during access preparation. Which of the following is the BEST course of action
a. repair the perforation immediately and continue the root canal treatment
b. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment, only if associated pathosis develops
c. continue the root canal treatment; repair the perforation at a subsequent appointment
e. perform no further treatment at this time; repair the perforation and continue the root canal treatment at a subsequent appointment

75. which tooth has the most cervical enamel projections
a. mandibular premolar
b. mandibular molars
c. maxillary molars
d. maxillary incisors

87. a patient has a high caries index, short crowns and minimum horizontal overlap. What restoration will you plce
a. 3/4 frown
b. jacket crown
c. PFM
d. resin bonded retainer

104. a patient gets a blow to the chin. He complains of pain on the right side and the jw deviates to the right. What is the cause
a. fracture of symptoms
b. fracture of left subcondylar
c. fracture of right subcondylar

122. which of the following combinations is least addictive
a. Tylenol+ASA
b. tetracycline + penicillin
c. caffeine + amphetamine

128. which of the following is a definite sign of traumatic occlusion
a. bone loss
b. gingival recession
c. wear facets
d. food impaction

133. how do you surgically treat a skeletal one bite
a. osteotomy
b. anterior maxillary surgery
c. Le Fort 1
d. Le Fort 2

136. the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%

139. an extra oral incision for a submandibular space abscess passes through
a. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, masseter
b. skin, superficial fascia, buccinator
c. skin, superficial fascia, platysma, deep cervical fascia
140. in restoring a canine protected occlusion, with anterior overbite of about 2mm. The buccal cusps f posterior teeth should be flat, BECAUSE they will guide the protrusion
a. both are true
b. only the second statement is true
c. both are false
d. only the first statement is true

149. what does an interrupted suture accomplished
a. brings the flap closer
b. covers all exposed bone
c. immobilized the flap

159. each of the following have increased blood levels due to an active metabolite except
a. diazepam
b. flurazepam
c. taxozin
d. oxazepam
e. chloral hydrate


168. all of the following are congenital except
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. amelogenesis imperfecta
c. regional odontodysplasia
d. ectodermal dysplasia

171. mucous gland are seen every where except
a. palate
b. tongue
c. gingiva
d. buccal mucosa
172. stimulation of beta2 receptor will cause
a. vasodilator
b. sweating
c. broncho constriction
d. broncho dilation

d. decrease salivation
175. if the distance is double, the intensity will be
a. same
b. half
c. quarter
d. double

177. all forms of the hepatitis are transmitted through blood or bodily fluid except
a. non A non B
b. B
c. A
d. C
e. D


188. the most sensitive tissue to radiation
a. thyroid
b. nerve tissue of the pulp
c. salivary tissue
d. prostate gland
189. dentist is doing research on 5 unrelated patient with different background. He record data ……etc.
dentist is doing what kind of research?
a. clinical trial
b. cohort
c. sectional
190. relationship of sugar and cavity except one, which one
a. type
b. time
c. amount
d. consistency
e. concentration
191. difference between acetaminophen and aspirin
a. asthma patient

203 Studer-Weber syndrome
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog

206. which is the acronym for a patient management system
a. recruit
b. success
c. optimum

213. all of the following are affected in removed plaque except one
a. toothpick
b. H2O irrigation
c. toothbrush
d. floss

224. systemic fluoride are least effective on
a. proximal surface
b. smooth surface
c. root surface
d. pits and fissure
225 When finishing the occlusal portion of a posterior composite restoration, the dentist should carefully
a. eliminate contacts in the fossa
b. avoid altering the centric contact on enamel
c. develop centric contacts on cavosurface margins

230 A patient who has Parkinson's disease is being treated with levodopa. Which of the following characterizes this drug's central mechanism of action
a. it replenishes a deficiency of dopamine
b. it increases concentrations of norepinephrine
c. it stimulates specific L-dopa receptors
d. it acts through a direct serotonergic action

232 daily cleaning of the root surface by the patient has been shown to
a. cause root sensitivity
b. cause root resorption
c. stimulates the epithelial attachment
d. allow remineralization of the root surface.

238 a 5 years old child has a posterior unilateral crossbite that is accompanied by a functional shift of the mandible. When should this crossbite be corrected
a. immediately without waiting for the eruption of permanents first molar
b. when all the primary teeth have exfoliated
c. after the permanent first molars have fully erupted
d. when the child is approximately 9 years old


246 Which of the following exhibits the MOST personal behavior by the dentist
A. leaning toward the patient
B. facing directly toward the patient
C. being seated 2 feet from the patient
D. touching the patient gently on the arm


260 each of the following types of viral hepatitis is usually transmitted through blood or bodily fluid EXCEPT one, which one is this EXCEPTION
a. hepatitis A
b. hepatitis B
c. hepatitis C
d. hepatitis D
e. non A-non B hepatitis


293 which of the following is used in restored a small portion of a mandible
a. silastic b. tantalum c. homogenous bone d. autogenous bone

301 what is the most common psychiatric problem in elderly
a. dementia b. depression c. mania

310 all f the following cause vasoconstriction except
a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. phenylephrine d. levonor defrin

314 opioid agonists act by
a. stimulating GABAergic neuron b. increase pain threshold c. acting as Mu receptor agonists

321 postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
a. sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
b. release of acetylcholine in the ganglia
c. epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
d. parasympathetic control of vascular resistance
e. neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles

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A periapical infection of a mandibular third molar
may spread by direct extension to the
1. parapharyngeal space.
2. submandibular space.
3. pterygomandibular space.
4. submental space.
A. (1) (2) (3) ANS
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
The most frequent cause of malocclusion is
A. thumbsucking.
B. mouth breathing.
C. heredity. ANS
D. ectopic eruption.
Which of the following pharmacokinetic change(s)
occur(s) with aging?
1. Absorption is altered by a decrease in the
gastric pH.
2. Metabolism is decreased by a reduced
liver mass.
3. Distribution is altered by a decrease in
total body fat.
4. Excretion is reduced because of lessened
renal blood flow.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above. ANS
A 12 year old child presents with characteristic
tetracycline discoloration of the maxillary and
mandibular incisors and permanent first molars.
The probable age at which this child received
tetracycline therapy was
A. 6 years.
B. 4 years.
C. 1 year.
D. before birth.
A single hypoplastic defect located on the labial
surface of a maxillary central incisor is most likely
due to a/an
A. dietary deficiency.
B. endocrine deficiency.
C. tetracycline therapy.
D. trauma to the maxillary primary central
incisor.
E. high fluoride intake.
In primary molars, radiographic bony changes
from an infection are initially seen
A. at the apices.
B. in the furcation area.
C. at the alveolar crest.
D. at the base of the developing tooth.
In children, the most common cause of a fistula is
a/an
A. acute periradicular abscess.
B. suppurative periradicular periodontitis.
C. acute periodontal abscess.
D. dentigerous cyst.

B
The absence of a pulp chamber in a deciduous
maxillary incisor is most likely due to
A. amelogenesis imperfecta.
B. hypophosphatasia.
C. trauma.
D. ectodermal dysplasia.
E. cleidocranial dysostosis.
A patient telephones and tells you he has just
knocked out his front tooth but that it is still intact.
Your instructions should be to
A. put the tooth in water and come to your
office at the end of the day.
B. wrap the tooth in tissue and come to your
office in a week's time.
C. put the tooth in alcohol and come to your
office immediately.
D. place tooth under the tongue and come to
your office immediately.
E. place the tooth in milk and come to your
office immediately.
When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Which of the following nerves should be
anesthetized for extraction of a maxillary lateral
incisor?
1. Nasociliary.
2. Nasopalatine.
3. Sphenopalatine.
4. Anterior superior alveolar.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

C
The most likely complication associated with the
extraction of an isolated maxillary second molar is
A. a dry socket.
B. nerve damage.
C. fracture of the malar ridge.
D. fracture of the tuberosity.

C
Trismus is most frequently caused by
A. tetanus.
B. muscular dystrophy.
C. infection.
D. mandibular fracture.


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.Enamel Maturation is completed..
a- after eruption
b- at the time of eruption
c- before eruption
d- before eruption but after the root starts to form.

.the maximum percentage of N2O recommended in pediatric patient..
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 50%
d. 40%
e. 70%.

.Studer-Weber syndrome..
a. mandibular retro
b. midface ecto
c. maxillary prog


. .Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx...
.1. how do you treat traumatic bone cyst
a. leave it alone
b. excise
c. give meds
5. which of the following represents the basic constituent of the most root canal sealer
a. zinc oxide
b. zinc stearate
c. polyvinyl resin
d. polycarboxylate
e. zinc oxyphosphate
6. aging of the pulp is evidenced by an increase in
a. vascularly
b. cellular elements
c. fibrous elements
d. pulp stones
7. in the normal dental pulp, which of the following histologic features is least likely to appear
a. cell-free zone of weil
b. palisade odontoblastic layer
c. lymphocytes and plasma cells
d. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells
8 the most commonly found salivary gland tumor is
a. adenocystic carcinoma
b. pleomorphic adenoma
c. muco epidermoid carcinoma
9 the action f the Hawley appliance is mainly
a. intrusion
b. tipping
c. bodily movement
10 a light force applied to the periodontal ligament during orthodontic treatment is considered
a. intermittent
b. direct
c. continuous
d. indirect
11 the fluoride concentration in most dentifrices range from
a. 1-5 ppm
b. 900-1500ppm
c. 450-700ppm
d. 4000-6000ppm
12 in a full upper denture the post palatal seal is determined by
a. the technician
b. the depth of the vibration line
c. 2-3mm
13 how is scrap amalgam is stored
a. under water
b. under sulfide
c. glycerin
14 the leas likely situation for a carcinoma to occur in the oral cavity is
a. floor of the mouth
b. alveolar ridge
c. lateral border of the tongue
15 histologically, the loss of the rete peg often is a sign of
a. pemphigus
b. lichen planus
c. pemphigoid
d. syphills
16 which of the following represents the predominate type cell type in crevicular epithelium
a. mast cell
b. PMN
c. macrophage
d. lymphocyte
e. plasma cell
17 which of the organisms are involved with periodontal disease
a. P. gingivilits
b. E. species
c. C. rectus
d. Bacteroid
e. all of the above
18 each of the following has been associated with gastric limitation, except
a. acetaminophen
b. alcohol
c. ibuprofen
d. indomethacin
19 the most common reason for fracture of an amalgam in class 2 pedo molar toth
a. insufficient deth
b. saliva contamination during condensation
d. line angle too sharp
20 the best reason for RPD over fixed partial denture
a. hygiene
b. cooperation
c. esthetic
21 where is the gold directed on an MO onlay spruce
a, faces pulpal axial line angle
b. occlusal floor
c. pulpal floor
d. gingival floor
22 which injection post the greatest risk for a hematoma
a. PSA
b. MSA
c. mandibular block
23 why is the surgical stent required for an immediate denture
a. to give an idea of the anatomy of the region
b. prevent hematoma
c. to determine occlusion
24 the least likely fracture site in the mandible will be
a. coronoid
b. condyle
c. body of mandible
d. ramus
e. symphysis
25 which tooth will the matrix band be a problem with when placing a two surface amalgam
a. mesial on maxillary first molar
b. distal on maxillary first premolar
c. mesial on maxillary second premolar
d. distal on mandibular first molar
26 what is pulpectomy
a. extirpating pulp chamber and canal completely
b. partial instrumentation of the canal
c. complete cleaning and shaping
27 the greatest appositional growth occur
a. posterior border of the ramus
b. anterior part of ramus
c. chin
28 when do you do serial extraction
a. for space deficiency in mandibular anterior region
b. for space deficiency in mandibular posterior region
c. for space deficiency in maxillary anterior region
b. for space deficiency in maxillary posterior region
29 on what surface of the tooth is there deposition of F
a. smooth surface
b. pits
c. fissures
30 how will treat patient with type 2 furcation
a. tissue guided regeneration
b. oral hygiene instruction and root planing
c. reposition flap surgery
31 thumb sucking can cause all the following except
a. deep over bite
b. protruded maxillary incisor
c. lingual tipping of the mandibular incisors
d. anterior open bite
how will treat a vital second molar with a 1.5mm exposure on a 12 years old patient
a. apexification
b. endodontic treatment
c. extract
d. apicoectomy
32 bonding on a tooth does all of the following except
a. chemical bonding
b. mechanical bonding
c. increase surface area
33 a patient complaint of recent severe pain with percussion of a tooth. The most likely cause is
a. acute apical periodontitis
b. chronic apical perio
c. reversible pulpitis
d. irreversible pulpitis
34 direct pulp capping is recommended for primary teeth with
a. carious exposure
b. mechanical exposure
c. calcification in the pulp chamber
d. all of the above
35 a calcium hydroxide pulpotomy performed on a young permanent tooth is judged to be succeful when
a. the patient is asymptomatic
b. the tooth responds to pulp testing
c. normal tooth development continues
all of the above
36 organism implicated on causing severe spreading abscesses include
a. Fusobacterium
b Campylobacter
c. Enterococci
d. Bacteroides
37 the periapical lesion that wound most likely contain bacteria within the lesion is
a. an abscess
b. a cyst
c. a granuloma
d. condensing osteitis
38 of the following periapical diagnosis, which most likely contain bacteria within the lesion
a. suppurative apical periodontitis
b. apical cyst
c. chronic apical perio
d. acute apical perio
39 a periodontal exam of a patient referred for endodontic treatment
a. there is an inward flow of fluid
b there is an outward flow of fluid
c. there is no fluid
40 you fit a new completed denture and the patient complaint of cheek biting, what would you do
a. grind buccal of lower teeth
b. grind buccal of upper teeth
c. grind lingula of lower teeth
d. grind lingula of upper teeth
41 with juvenile periodontitis which teeth are predominantly involved
a. first permanent molars and anterior teeth
b. all deciduous molars
c. all deciduous teeth
42 the optimal amount of tooth reduction on a molar for a metal ceramic crown preparation
a. 1.5mm
b. 1mm
c. 2mm
d. 2.5mm
e. 3mm
43 which drug is LEAST likely to result in an allergy reaction
a. epine
b. procaine
c. bisulfite
d. lidocaine
44 when doing an endo treatment you hit a ledge, what are you going to do
a. use a smaller instrument and get beyond the ledge
b. fill as far as you have reamed
c. use a small round bur and remove the ledge
d. continue working gently to eliminate the ledge
45 when treating deep packets in a patient with juvenile perio, the least effective treatment is
a. occlusal adjustment
b. root planing
c. antibiotic treatment
d. perio surgery
46 the materials that will produce the best osseous regeneration is
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. alloplastic
d. simigraft
47 what is main reason to splint mobile perio involved tooth
patient's comfort
48 dysplasia is related to which of the following conditions. Please check
a. leukemia
b. diabetes
c. pregnancy
d. puberty
49 a patient with new denture can not make the "S" and "TH" sound, what is the problem
a. extensive vertical overlap
b. incisors place too far
c. incisors placed too far lingually
50 what composite should ideally be used for a class 5
a. microfil because it polished better
b. microfil because it is stronger
c. hybrid because it polished better
d. hybrid because it is stronger
51 what would you recommended for an 8 years old patient
a. this is a normal eruption pattern
b. refer for ortho
c. refer to oral surgery
52 between which teeth is the primate space found in the mandible
a. deciduous canine and first molar
53 what would you warm patient about who is taking birth control pills and requires Penicillian
a. penicillin decrease effectiveness of birth control pill
b. birth control pill decrease effectiveness of pen
c. they may develop allergy
54 after doing RCT, the success can be determine by all the following except
a. loss of periapical lucency on a radiograph
b. formation of apical scar
c. absence of pain
d. absence of exudate
55 what is the impression materials with the best dimension stability 24 after taking the impression
a. PVS
b. reversible colloid
c. irreversible colloid
56 what radiograph would you prescribe for a young patient who has no caries and where the molar teeth are contacting each other
a. BW and occlusal
b. FMS
c. pan
d. pan and ceph
57 how far should implants be placed from one another
a. 3mm
b. 4mm
c. 5mm
d. 7mm
58 what does of F are most effective
a. small dose high frequency
b. small doses low frequency
c. high doses high frequency
d. high doses low frequency
59 if a patient has SNA of 82 and a SNB of 87 wht type of malocclusion will be seen
a. mandibular protrusion
b. maxillary protrusion
c. maxillary retrusion
d. mandibular retrusion
60 in what part of the month are metastases seen most frequently
a. mandible
b. lateral border of tongue
c. palate
d. floor of the month
61 the greatest decrease in radiation to the patient/gonads can be achieved by
a. change from D to F speed
b. thyroid collar
c. filtration
d. collimation
62 meperidine overdose is treated with
a. naloxone
b. amphetamine
c. nalbuphine and epine
63 what is the complication of up righting molar
a. move distally and extrudes
b. a class 3 molar relationship can develop
c. class 2 molar relationship can develop
64 what materials will be used for a non vital pulpotomy in a primary tooth? ZOE as root canal filling
can not do pulpotomy on a non vital primary tooth
65 a new patient comes in to see you with deep pockets. What will you initially do
a. scaling and root planing
b. gingivectomy
c. WMF
66 when will the BULL rule be utilized with selective grinding
a. working side
b. balance side
c. protrusive movement
d. all the above
67 which of the following can be used for topical anesthesia
a. lidocaine
b. benzocaine
68 collimation
a. reduce the size of the beam
b. reduces the shape of the beam
c. reduces radiation to the patient
d. all the above
69 what can make porcelain crown lighter
a. value
b. chroma
c. hue
70 multiple periapical lucency are common in patients with which of the following condition
a. dentinal dysplasia
b. taurodontia
c. germination
d. amelogenesis imperfecta
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta
71 which of the following is the most common cause of TMJ ankylosis
a. trauma
b. otitis media
c. rheumatic arthritis
72 which of the following are effects common to pentobarbital, diazepam and meperidine
a. amnesia and skeletal muscle relaxation
b. anticonvulsant and hypnotic
c. analgesia and relief of anxiety
73 which of the following is the treatment of choice of a 7 year old child with a non vital permanent first molar
a. apexification
b. calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
c. gutta percha root filling
74 which radiographs would be most effective in localizing a supernumary tooth and its relationship to other teeth
a. 2 periapical views at different angles and an occlusal
b. a periapical and an occlusal
c. a periapical using a long cone
d. a pan and a supplemental occlusal
75 the relative position of the maxilla to the cranial base will be determined cephalometrically by the angle
a. SNA
b. SNB
c. Sn-GoGn
d. ANB
76 pan showing lucency going inferior over the body of mandible close to the angle. Informed the patient was involved in an accident. Identify the lucency
a. pharyngeal airspace
b. fracture
c. artifact-retake radiograph
77 with mandibular bilateral distal extension RPD, when you place pressure on one sides the opposite side lifts and vice versa, what is the problem
a. no indirect retention used
b. rests do not fit
c. acrylic resin base support
78 a patient with a new denture has a problem pronouncing the F and V sounds. What is the problem
a. maxillary incisors placed too far superior
b. maxillary incisors placed too far superior
c. mandibular incisors placed too far lingually
79 which of the following is the man side effect of bleaching of an endodontically treated tooth
a. external cervical resorption
b. demineralization of tooth structure
c. gingival inflammation
80 which nerve involved with a Le Forte II fracture
a. infra orbital
b. greater palatine
c. nasopalatine
d. PSA
81 when treating deep vertical pockets in a patient with juvenile periodontitis, the least effective treatment is
a. occlusal adjustment
b. root planing
c. antibiotic therapy
d. periodontal flap surgery
82 sedative drug such as hydroxyzine, meperidine and diazepam are carried in the blood in
a. serum
b. white blood cells
c. red blood cells
d. hemoglobin
83 steroid causes
a. adrenal gland suppression
b. thyroid gland suppression
c. parathyroid gland suppression
84 after opening the flap buccally in the maxillary premolar area, how will you suture it
a. interrupted
b. intermittent
c. mattress
85 the materials that will produce the BEST osseous regeneration is
a. autograft
b. allograft
c. alloplast
d. simiograft
86 the best combination treating TB
a. rifampin and isoniazid
b. rifampin and penicillin
c. ethambutol and penicillin
d. rifampin and streptomycin
87 the distal palatal termination of the maxillary complete denture base by the
a. tuberosity
b. fovea palatine
c. maxillary tori
d. vibrating line
e. posterior palatal seal
88 the strength of dental investment for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of
a. silica
b. carbon
c. copper
d. gypsum
89 which med cause mydriasis
atropine
90 what happen to curve of spee in a patient who has lost tooth #19 and #20 have drifted
curve of spee reversed
91 what do you expect to occur in a child with an anterior edge to edge bite
class 3 malocclusion
92 lateral bennet shift is most likely to affected by centric occlusion
mesial distal steep incline, facial lingual steep incline
93 which of the following has the greatest coefficient of thermal expansion
a. gold
b. resin
c. amalgam
94 with insufficient light cure, which area is softer (underpolymerized)?
Core of the composite
95 what is advantage of a bonded bracket over a wire band
no separator need
96 conjunctivitis hemorrhage is the result of which fracture nasal maxillary sinus zygomatic arch
maxillozygomatic temporal
97 fracture of a rest of a chromium cobalt denture is due to
a. over-finish and polish
b. inadequate occlusal preparation
98 in office bleaching changes the shade through all except
a. dehydration
b. etching tooth
c. oxidation of colorant
d. surface demineralization
99 the lingual root of maxillary first molar radiographically appears mesial to the mesiobuccal root because the cone was directed from
a. mesial
b. distal
c. superior
d. inferior
100 you fit new completed denture and the patient complains of cheek bite, what will you do
a. grinding buccal of lower teeth
b. grinding buccal of upper teeth
c. grinding lingual of lower teeth .
.d. grinding lingual of upper teeth.
. .
. .
Which of the following materials is most likely to cause adverse pulpal reaction when placed directly in a deep cavity preparation?
1 dental amalgam
2 composite resin
3 calcium hydroxide
4 ZnOE
5 Polycarboxylate cement


.According to the American Hear Association the antibiotic to be used prophylactically for a penicillin allergic patient with respect to heart vavle is:
1 vancomycin
2. cephalexin
3.penicillin v
4.tetracycline
5.clindamycin .
. .
. .
.What cannot be advertised by a general dentist?.
.a-COST????.
.b-SPECIALTY???.
.c-LICENSE AGREEMENT???.
. .
23. Correction of an inadequate zone of attached gingiva on several adjacent teeth is best
accomplished with a/an
A. apically repositioned flap. right one ????
B. laterally positioned sliding flap.
C. double-papilla pedicle graft.
D. coronally positioned flap.
E. free gingival graft.

24. The colour of normal gingiva is affected by the
1. vascularity of the gingiva. For sure
2. epithelial keratinization.
3. thickness of the epithelium.
4. melanin pigmentation. For sure
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
.Impression material with least tear resistance-.
a-Rubber base
b-Irrev hydrocolloid
c-Rever hydrocolloid

.WITH INSUFFICIENT LIGHT CURE, WHICH PART OF THE IMPRESSION WILL REMAIN SOFT(UNDER POLYMERIZED).
a-ext surface beneath light
b-core of composite
c-axial wall

All of the following r functional appliances except:

1 frankel

2 bionator

3 Clark's Twin Block

4 Herbst

5 Activator

6 Quad Helix

Another question of perio
In ahemisection the tooth is cut in a half.This technique is almost used exclusievly on :

1 Mandibular first and second premolars

2 Maxillary first and second molars

3 Maxillary caines

4 Man

Another question of perio
In ahemisection the tooth is cut in a half.This technique is almost used exclusievly on :

1 Mandibular first and second premolars

2 Maxillary first and second molars

3 Maxillary caines

4 Mandibular molars to treat class II OR III furcation invasion

Xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

 

[Rissas]

Number 1: Apical. Because this area has a lot of blood vessels, cells which can help with the repair process.
Number2: Definetily error, cause you are right. Pulpotomy.

im takin it at the end of this month.
couple of questions -

1.) which perforation has the best prognosis?
apical, floor of the pulp chamber, or crown?

i thought it would be crown cuz u can do a restoration immediately, but the answer is apical -why is that?

2.) what is the best treatment for a 2.0 mm 2nd molar exposure in a 12 yr old patient?

direct pulp capping, indirect pulp capping, apexogenesis, apexification

i thought the answer would be apexogenesis cuz the root will not be fully formed, so u would do a pulpotomy (2 mm too big for pulp capping), close it off and let the root form physiologically. answer is apexification. why???
isnt apexification only for a completely NONVITAL pulp? in this case, wouldn't the radicular pulp be vital?

if anyone can help me out w/ these q's i'd appreciate it!

thanks!

 

[hydhaval]

hey guys, can any one tell me that whether we are required to remember trade name of all drugs in pharmacology section?

 

[dreamchaser]

hey guys, can any one tell me that whether we are required to remember trade name of all drugs in pharmacology section?

there r many cards in pharma decks wd trade name
in exam do they ask quns with trade names???

 

[hydhaval]

there r many cards in pharma decks wd trade name
in exam do they ask quns with trade names???

no idea, can anyone shine light over this matter who is done with part 2?

 

[nbde2]

most common site in mandible for fractures is
1 condyle
2 angle
3 symphysis
4 ramus

ans givn is angle in asda papers .........but according 2 mosby it should b condyle 29.1% while angle 24.5%????????????

so wt it shd b ??????

 

[nbde2]

Q) the DF root apex of maxillary 3rd molar has been accidently dislodged beyond the socket.The root apex may b probably in

a) canine fossa
b)max sinus
c) infratemporal fossa
d)pterygomandibular canal
e)between periosteum and buccal plate above socket level

1 a,c or d
2 a or d only
3 b,c or e
4 b or e only
5 any


ans given is 4 but why not 3???

 

[Rissas]

most common site in mandible for fractures is
1 condyle
2 angle
3 symphysis
4 ramus

ans givn is angle in asda papers .........but according 2 mosby it should b condyle 29.1% while angle 24.5%????????????

so wt it shd b ??????

Well, the age is imp. A Child under 6 the most common site is Condyle, after 6 is the Condyle neck , and adults finally Angle....

 

[Rissas]

Q) the DF root apex of maxillary 3rd molar has been accidently dislodged beyond the socket.The root apex may b probably in

a) canine fossa
b)max sinus
c) infratemporal fossa
d)pterygomandibular canal
e)between periosteum and buccal plate above socket level

1 a,c or d
2 a or d only
3 b,c or e
4 b or e only
5 any


ans given is 4 but why not 3???

Because has to be in the sourrounding structures, cause the apex is a minimal part of the tooth. The closest structures are max sinus o around the alveolo .... and besides infrat fossa is far and pterygoman canal is where the pteygomand raphe is located near buccinator and superior constrictor muscles (mandibula)...

 

[nbde2]

disorientation,confusion and hallucinations resulting from overdose of scopolamine are most efficaciously treated by

1)dantrolene
2)neostigmine
3)physostigmine
4) glycopyrolate

 

[nbde2]

administration of an otherwise effective pressor dose of epinephrine could cause an epinephrine reversal in a pt taking which of following
1 reserpine
2amphetamine
3 chlorpromazine
4 propranolol

anz givn is 3??

 

[dreamdr]

Hey guys i have a quick question fo all of you ,has anyone used the mosbys 2 international edition?If yes ,how is it ?Does it include the case study cd's?

Thanks in advance!

 

[Rissas]

disorientation,confusion and hallucinations resulting from overdose of scopolamine are most efficaciously treated by

1)dantrolene
2)neostigmine
3)physostigmine
4) glycopyrolate

Is a cholinergic Agonist and can cross blood brain barrier, this one is used to treat overdoses of atropine too....

 

[Rissas]

administration of an otherwise effective pressor dose of epinephrine could cause an epinephrine reversal in a pt taking which of following
1 reserpine
2amphetamine
3 chlorpromazine
4 propranolol

anz givn is 3??

Can you please reform o explain me better the question....I dont understand, you are asking about which pharmaco is like epinephrine but has a reversal action ????...

 

[Confused Kid]

1. what has better prognosis, small internal root resportion or lateral external root resportion? i think its internal root resportion

2.what hormone causes inc sensitivity to epi?

3. whats the most n20 u can give a child? (70%?)

 

[Confused Kid]

Well, the age is imp. A Child under 6 the most common site is Condyle, after 6 is the Condyle neck , and adults finally Angle....

i believe mosby is wrong...according to the decks and textbooks, in adults body of the mandible is the most common location for fractures

 

[Rissas]

Let's keep looking Confuse kid, Im not telling that this has to be the answer, but I find this article....Now we need to know, what answer they want us to write??? jajaja Angle, body....I'll will go for angle OKOK


Pattern of mandibular fractures in an urban major trauma center
Journal of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Volume 61, Issue 6, Pages 713-718

Many studies focusing on the pattern of presentation of mandibular fractures are inconclusive. This is largely due to a multifactorial involvement of associated factors and the role of anatomic factors. Patients and Methods: We reviewed a 10-year retrospective analysis of the pattern of presentation of mandibular fractures at an urban level I trauma center in Washington, DC, and the significance of the variables in association with the fractures. These include mechanism of action, age group, illicit drug use, seasonal variation, and the incidence of multiple fracture sites. We also looked at the evolving pattern of mandibular fractures in comparison to an earlier study conducted in the 1960s at the same hospital. Data collection was done through the use of medical records and all documented radiographs. Variables that were analyzed in association with the fractures include age, gender, mechanism of action, seasonal variation, and anatomic location. Data analysis was done using subjective analysis, frequency distribution, and multiple regression tests, where appropriate. Results: Data analysis shows that 86% of all fracture patients are male, and 37% of all patients were in the 25- to 34-year-old age group. Use of an illicit substance at the time of trauma was seen in 55% of all cases. Interpersonal violence accounted for 79% of all patients, with prevalence in the summer (31%) and winter (28%) months. The most common location of fracture is in the angle region (36%), followed by the body (21%) and parasympyhseal region (17%), with 52% presenting with more than one fracture site. Conclusion: The evolving pattern of fractures in urban trauma centers is showing an increasing trend of association with illicit substances and interpersonal violence as a major causative factor. [copy ] 2003 American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons J Oral Maxillofac Surg 61:713-718, 2003

 

[Confused Kid]

Let's keep looking Confuse kid, Im not telling that this has to be the answer, but I find this article....Now we need to know, what answer they want us to write??? jajaja Angle, body....I'll will go for angle OKOK


Pattern of mandibular fractures in an urban major trauma center
Journal of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Volume 61, Issue 6, Pages 713-718

Many studies focusing on the pattern of presentation of mandibular fractures are inconclusive. This is largely due to a multifactorial involvement of associated factors and the role of anatomic factors. Patients and Methods: We reviewed a 10-year retrospective analysis of the pattern of presentation of mandibular fractures at an urban level I trauma center in Washington, DC, and the significance of the variables in association with the fractures. These include mechanism of action, age group, illicit drug use, seasonal variation, and the incidence of multiple fracture sites. We also looked at the evolving pattern of mandibular fractures in comparison to an earlier study conducted in the 1960s at the same hospital. Data collection was done through the use of medical records and all documented radiographs. Variables that were analyzed in association with the fractures include age, gender, mechanism of action, seasonal variation, and anatomic location. Data analysis was done using subjective analysis, frequency distribution, and multiple regression tests, where appropriate. Results: Data analysis shows that 86% of all fracture patients are male, and 37% of all patients were in the 25- to 34-year-old age group. Use of an illicit substance at the time of trauma was seen in 55% of all cases. Interpersonal violence accounted for 79% of all patients, with prevalence in the summer (31%) and winter (28%) months. The most common location of fracture is in the angle region (36%), followed by the body (21%) and parasympyhseal region (17%), with 52% presenting with more than one fracture site. Conclusion: The evolving pattern of fractures in urban trauma centers is showing an increasing trend of association with illicit substances and interpersonal violence as a major causative factor. [copy ] 2003 American Association of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgeons J Oral Maxillofac Surg 61:713-718, 2003

Thats from an urban trauma center...thats for that particular place according to diff months and stuff and what they found

http://www.rad.washington.edu/acade...adiology-book/facial-and-mandibular-fractures

read that article...we want the answer in general....

 

[rdsd]

administration of an otherwise effective pressor dose of epinephrine could cause an epinephrine reversal in a pt taking which of following
1 reserpine
2amphetamine
3 chlorpromazine
4 propranolol

anz givn is 3??

Epinephrine reversal is effect of epi in the presence of an alpha blocker. the vasoconstrictor effect is converted into vasodilator effect in the presence of an alpha blocker. the beta2 vasodilator response becomes the major vascular response to epinephrine bcoz all the alpha receptors are blocked by alpha blocker.
reserpine-antihypertensive but wont work by alpha blocking
amhetamine- psychostimulant
propranolol-non selective beta blocker
chlorpromazine-antipsychotic....it blocks alpha 1,2, histamine,serotonin,dopamine....so on..

hope it helps

 

[Rissas]

thanks!!! Chlorpromazine is the answer because has antisympathomimetic properties, blocks alpha 1, 2..


Epinephrine reversal is effect of epi in the presence of an alpha blocker. the vasoconstrictor effect is converted into vasodilator effect in the presence of an alpha blocker. the beta2 vasodilator response becomes the major vascular response to epinephrine bcoz all the alpha receptors are blocked by alpha blocker.

reserpine-antihypertensive but wont work by alpha blocking
amhetamine- psychostimulant
propranolol-non selective beta blocker
chlorpromazine-antipsychotic....it blocks alpha 1,2, histamine,serotonin,dopamine....so on..

hope it helps[/quote]

 

[nbde2]

Treatment of choice for a patient wth bilateral severe maxillary tuberosity undercuts is to

1 remove both tuberosity undercuts
2 reduce tissue bilaterally
3 reduce the tissue on one side only, if possible
4 none

 

[nbde2]

24 hours aftr an elective orthognathic surgery , a pt develops a temp of 102 F wthout local edema or tenderness.The most likely cause
1 dehydration
2 atelectasis
3infective endocarditis
4 sinusitis
5 infectd haematoma

 

[Rissas]

Treatment of choice for a patient wth bilateral severe maxillary tuberosity undercuts is to

1 remove both tuberosity undercuts
2 reduce tissue bilaterally
3 reduce the tissue on one side only, if possible
4 none

Ans is 3.
If you reduce only one side you can create path of insertion and the other side for retention...."This was a opinion of an other student in 2005)

But has sense. Don't you think so...

 

[Rissas]

24 hours aftr an elective orthognathic surgery , a pt develops a temp of 102 F wthout local edema or tenderness.The most likely cause
1 dehydration
2 atelectasis
3infective endocarditis
4 sinusitis
5 infectd haematoma

First 24 hours: atelectasis.

After 48 hours:> Infection....

 

[Rissas]

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it
is observed that the tuberosities contact the
retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical
dimension. The treatment of choice is to

A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically
to provide the necessary clearance.
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance.
C. construct new dentures at an
increased occlusal vertical dimension
to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construction of the
denture and reduce the posterior
extension of the mandibular denture
to eliminate interferences.
" I think is B"

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it
is observed that the tuberosities contact the
retromolar pads at PHYSIOLOGICAL REST POSITION
. The treatment of choice is to
A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically
to provide the necessary clearance.
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance.
C. construct new dentures at an
increased occlusal vertical dimension
to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construction of the
denture and reduce the posterior
extension of the mandibular denture
to eliminate interferences

I Think is B too.....But Let me know your answer PLEASE!!!!!

 

[nbde2]

3 days aftr removal of a tooth for an immediate denture, a pt complains of diffuse, yellow, non painful discoloration of submandibular n suprasternal discoloration of the skin.the dentist shd

1 apply cold compress
2 administer antibiotics
3 administer anti inflammatory
4 apply moist heat n administer antibiotics
5 none

 

[Rissas]

3 days aftr removal of a tooth for an immediate denture, a pt complains of diffuse, yellow, non painful discoloration of submandibular n suprasternal discoloration of the skin.the dentist shd

1 apply cold compress
2 administer antibiotics
3 administer anti inflammatory
4 apply moist heat n administer antibiotics
5 none

Ithe pacient has a postsurgical hematoma, probably vessel injuries....First 24 hours apply cold compress and at 3rd day moist heat and in the presence of hematoma the antibiotics helps avoid infection....

 

[nbde2]

Ithe pacient has a postsurgical hematoma, probably vessel injuries....First 24 hours apply cold compress and at 3rd day moist heat and in the presence of hematoma the antibiotics helps avoid infection....

ans as per asda papers is none

 

[hydhaval]

hi, plz help me to answer this

when zinc phosphate cement is used as a luting agent, initial acidity myay elicit traumatic pulp response if
a. only a thin layer of dentin left between cement and pulp
b. very thin mix of cement is used
c. tooth already had traumatic injury
d. no cavity varnish used

A. a,c,d
B. a or d only
C. b only
D. any of above

 

[Confused Kid]

when u guys takin your exam?

u guys hear anything if backexams help?

 

[Rissas]

hi, plz help me to answer this

when zinc phosphate cement is used as a luting agent, initial acidity myay elicit traumatic pulp response if
a. only a thin layer of dentin left between cement and pulp/
b. very thin mix of cement is used: well is a lutent agent....has to be thin
c. tooth already had traumatic injury....
d. no cavity varnish used

A. a,c,d
B. a or d only
C. b only
D. any of above

tricky ans!!!! Because I think that Is not the same inflammatory pulp response and traumatic pulp response???? Well in my opinion ..no. I think traumatic response occurs during and after the preparation (cause dentin desiccated) and of course occurs an inflammatory response with pulpal damage too...But the ans ask about the initial acidity of the cement and the presence of a traumatic Response. Well, if we have a thin layer (luting agent), cavity varnish and a very thin mix, doesn't have to occur an inflamatory response with pulp damage (trauma)...If we dont protect the dentin with a varnish, it can occur an inflammatory response but not traumatic....I think that a traumatic response already occur during preparation...

Guys what do you think?????? As you see Im confused too....

I think is ANY of Above

 

[Rissas]

when u guys takin your exam?

u guys hear anything if backexams help?

I will take it at the end of this month......I asked about that and help a lot, but people recommend me Kaplan Qbank too.... But I think is to easy....Lets see what happen.

 

[Rathi]

What study material you guys following pls let me know. I have just got the idea to prepare myself for part 2

I appreciate your help guys

Thanks

 

[hydhaval]

hi everyone, anyone taking part 2in mid june?

 

[Rissas]

can somebody help me with these 2 ques...

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it
is observed that the tuberosities contact the
retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical
dimension. The treatment of choice is to

A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically
to provide the necessary clearance.
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance.
C. construct new dentures at an
increased occlusal vertical dimension
to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construction of the
denture and reduce the posterior
extension of the mandibular denture
to eliminate interferences.
" I think is B"

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it
is observed that the tuberosities contact the
retromolar pads at PHYSIOLOGICAL REST POSITION
. The treatment of choice is to
A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically
to provide the necessary clearance.
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance.
C. construct new dentures at an
increased occlusal vertical dimension
to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construction of the
denture and reduce the posterior
extension of the mandibular denture
to eliminate interferences

I Think is B too.....But Let me know your answer PLEASE!!!!!

 

[read]

im preparing for part 2 if any body interested plz message me(pm)

i just started preparation for part 2, want to give exam in mid june, when you guys are planning to give exam?

 

[chotu]

iam from india & currently located in fortlauderdale florida.i need study partner for part 2,anyone nearby intrested

 

[hydhaval]

can somebody help me with these 2 ques...

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it
is observed that the tuberosities contact the
retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical
dimension. The treatment of choice is to

A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically
to provide the necessary clearance.
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance.
C. construct new dentures at an
increased occlusal vertical dimension
to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construction of the
denture and reduce the posterior
extension of the mandibular denture
to eliminate interferences.
" I think is B"

Upon examination of an edentulous patient, it
is observed that the tuberosities contact the
retromolar pads at PHYSIOLOGICAL REST POSITION
. The treatment of choice is to
A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically
to provide the necessary clearance.
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance.
C. construct new dentures at an
increased occlusal vertical dimension
to gain the necessary clearance.
D. proceed with construction of the
denture and reduce the posterior
extension of the mandibular denture
to eliminate interferences

I Think is B too.....But Let me know your answer PLEASE!!!!!

i also think that for both questions answe should be B

 

[hydhaval]

Hey risaas and all, plz help me to answer this

1) at wt age all primary teeth are normally in occlusion
a. 1.5 -2 yrs
b. 2.5 to 3 yrs
c. 3.5 to 4 yrs
d > 4 yrs

i think its b, but not sure

 

[hydhaval]

if pt has difficulty in pronouncing S and TH sound - this is due to excessive vertical over lap and if patient has difficulty in pronouncing F and V sound - incisors are placed to far superiorly, am i right? plz give your openion

 

[Rissas]

Hey risaas and all, plz help me to answer this

1) at wt age all primary teeth are normally in occlusion
a. 1.5 -2 yrs
b. 2.5 to 3 yrs
c. 3.5 to 4 yrs
d > 4 yrs

i think its b, but not sure

B. You are right, all primary teeth will be in oclussion after primary Second Mol: 22-33 months , completed the eruption.....