Was told of a patient my friend had the other day and was hoping some people on here could shed some light on the issue. He said he had a patient in acute renal failure, creatinine progressively rising, that also had a CHF exacerbation and was several liters up on the hospitalization. My friend said his attending used lasix on the patient, which immediately demonstrated improvement in the renal function and said his attending's rationale was that in an acute decompensated state, the heart and brain will attempt to perfuse at all costs, including vasoconstriction of the kidneys, and by giving lasix, this stimulated perfusion of the renal parenchyma.
First, from a pathophysiological standpoint is this true and have any of you seen or done this in practice in a similar circumstance? TIA
First, from a pathophysiological standpoint is this true and have any of you seen or done this in practice in a similar circumstance? TIA