this is from br cbt. New studies are indicating that the micronutrient chromium picolinate appears to normalize blood sugar levels in Type II diabetics who are not on any other diabetic therapy. Chromium picolinate must therefore: A. increase the effectiveness of insulin. B. impair glucose uptake. C. prevent pancreatic β-cells from secreting insulin. D. act as an appetite suppressant, thereby decreasing the overall blood glucose. The answer is A but I put C as a guess. I initially crossed out A because the way I interpreted it was, insulin circulating is already as effective as it can be and since no "biomolecular changes" are being made, the insulin alone is already at its "fullest potential." the only way Chromium picolinate would work is by somehow changing the way the insulin receptors on the cells respond, not the insulin itself. So if anything, it was the effectiveness of the insulin receptor. Now that I know the answer is A, I realize the way meant "increase the effectiveness" had a little different meaning than what test writer had in mind. I think if the answer choice said something along the lines of "increase the effectiveness of the insulin and insulin receptor function" than it would've been more clear. The AAMC tends to be more simple while people claim the real MCAT is a little tougher. I know BR tends to make their questions a little more thought provoking too and more in depth along with the real MCAT (which I'm glad for), do you guys ever run into issues like this? I know this is just one problem and I'm not freaking out over this, but I just wanted to see if you guys think my logic or thought process is flawed here? Thanks!