question for an osteopathic expert

[applicant2002]

i have a question and I need some help.

For the cervicals, there's a reason you sidebend to the same side and rotate to the opposite side. I've asked instructors, and they always explain it, but I usually lose track of what they are saying. It has something to do with the plane of the facet joints.

Can some OMT expert clarify?

Thanks a million

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[normalforce]

Sure, no prob.

With typical cervicals that are sidebent and rotated you must sidebend toward the side of the hard endfeel to gap open the zygohypophyseal joint to allow for translation of the cervcal vertebrae into the normal position. rotation to the opposite side goes into the restricted barrier.

Normalforce

 

[H0mersimps0n]

First, HVLA techniques are "Passive DIRECT" techniques which means the barrier is engaged by the physician (pt does nothing). Let's use an example of C4 RRSR Type II dysfunction (because cervicals follow Fryette Type II). If I understand your question right you're asking why, if this is a passive DIRECT technique don't we RLSL to engage the barrier (because we all know that you sidebend right rotate left during the treatment). The best answer I can come up with is that by SRRL the neck during treatment is the best way to "lock out" the isolated cervical vertebra for correcting the rotational component of the dysfunction. Through fixing the rotational component you automatically correct the sidebending problem without engaging that barrier the way we would expect.

Plain and simple the cervicals are a little odd because the vertebrea are best positioned for correction with direct engagement of sidebending and indirect engagment to the rotation. It's just anatomy of the facet's and the pillars. Hope that helped a little

 

[sophiejane]

Just remember (and understand) Fryette's Rules and you're halfway there