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I wrote a note in my book saying that exogenous steroid use will cause LH to drop (makes sense) and FSH would remain normal. I usually write these notes up after doing Qbank problems. I tried looking for that question (w/ explanation) but can't find it...
I'm having some doubts about whether or not that statement is correct..
Can someone confirm this?
The reason I'm unsure is because I know testosterone sends negative feedback to the hypothalamus AND the pituitary. Since testosterone decreases GnRH, I would assume FSH suffers as well...
Thanks in advance!
I'm having some doubts about whether or not that statement is correct..
Can someone confirm this?
The reason I'm unsure is because I know testosterone sends negative feedback to the hypothalamus AND the pituitary. Since testosterone decreases GnRH, I would assume FSH suffers as well...
Thanks in advance!