Seriously...Flight of ideas, circumstantiality, tangentiality, loose association

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Blesbok

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Psychiatrists obviously don't have enough work to do...

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You need some more work to do if you have the time to start threads like this.
 
bump:

would the following be a case of Flight of Ideas or Tangentiality?
A man is wandering the streets in 2Am in the morning

Police brought him in to the hospital

Doctor: How have you been eating?

Patient: My eating is okay. I once ate a lot of fish. Maybe I could go catch fish for a living. But no, I could never be an Eskimo. I like Klondike bars for breakfast. Why do they call it breakfast?
Is this flight of ideas because 1) the patient is being painted as a possible manic
2) The patient technically answered the question, so it cannot be tangentiality?

Thanks a head of time everyone.
 
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bump:

would the following be a case of Flight of Ideas or Tangentiality?
Is this flight of ideas because 1) the patient is being painted as a possible manic
2) The patient technically answered the question, so it cannot be tangentiality?

Thanks a head of time everyone.

The fact that whether it's one or the other matters at all is why I will never be a psychiatrist.

Sorry I can't answer your question.
 
Found this on random website:
"Frequent loose association of thoughts or speech- when one thought does not logically relate to the next. For example, "I need to go to the store to buy some band-aids. I read an article about how expensive AIDS drugs are. People take too many street drugs. The streets should be clean from the rain today, etc" The need to go to the store to buy band-aids is forgotten."

So your example sounds like flight of ideas with loose associations.


Tangentiality, as you said, involves not answering the question.
 
It's flight of ideas, especially in a manic context.

But if they hadn't answered the question directly, the rest of the phrases are indeed fairly "tangential".
 
thanks for your responses everyone


on another side note for psychiatry:

Normal Grief vs Depressive Episode/Disorder

We pretty much all know the big differences between these. However, there are a few subtleties bothering me

Amongst the USMLERx and Kaplan QBank questions regarding this topic, there seems to be a huge discrepancy in what they test for.

Rx:

They seem to value the specific symptoms (psychosis, functional impairment, suicidality) over the time frame.

So a question can state a patient's spouse died a few weeks ago but the patient has >4 criteria for MDE but has those above 3. instantly, it is no longer grief, but a major depressive episode.

Kaplan:

They seem to value the timeframe over the symptoms

A question is identical above, but the answer is "normal grief" because it was only a few weeks.


Good grief, contradiction? Or am I just missing a subtlety here? The answer keys were not very helpful
 
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