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I saw a 19 year old patient 4 weeks ago, who presented with malaise and anorexia.
2 weeks prior she had a 3 day episode of vomiting and diarrhea , which had resolved.
However, her grandmother was quite concerned in regards to her anorexia.
On exam, she exhibited quite significant orthostatic hypotension. She did not complain of abdominal pain.
As a result of the clinical picture, I sent her to the ER, where it turned out she had a ruptured appendix and a WBC of 30. This was treated with percutaneous drains for the abscesses, and the patient was admitted for approximately 3 days.
I saw the pt again today in reassessment post drains. This time the pt complained of fatigue and mild malaise. She had eaten that day, was tolerating fluids, and passing flatus.
On exam she exhibited the following:
Oral Temp: 37.5 / 37.7 C ( 2 readings taken)
BP: 130 / 80
HR: 120 / reg
Sitting
BP: 120 / 75
HR: 134 / reg
Standing ( pt complained of mild presyncope)
Her abdominal exam failed to show peritoneal signs, although she did exhibit moderate tenderness in the drain regions. She had bandages over her abdo where the drains had been removed.
I ordered a stat CBC, creatinine, etc. with reassessment tomorrow.
How many peeps would have sent her to the ER versus close re-assessment ?
and why?
Using the retrospectospcope, I believe I made 2 mistakes here:
1. Considering her abnormal vitals: I should have sent this pt to the ER. I did not , as I believe I was influenced by the fact that I had previously sent the pt and her GM to the ER 4 weeks ago.
I did counsel the pt and her GM that she should immediately attend the ER should she get worse ( i.e. abdo pain, vomiting, fever, etc.). At this point, the GM complained about
the significant wait experienced in the ER 4 weeks ago. I indicated that this was immaterial in the care of her grand-daughter, as this could be a potentially life-theatening problem.
2. In retrospect, I should have at least talked with surgery and obtained specialist feedback.
2 weeks prior she had a 3 day episode of vomiting and diarrhea , which had resolved.
However, her grandmother was quite concerned in regards to her anorexia.
On exam, she exhibited quite significant orthostatic hypotension. She did not complain of abdominal pain.
As a result of the clinical picture, I sent her to the ER, where it turned out she had a ruptured appendix and a WBC of 30. This was treated with percutaneous drains for the abscesses, and the patient was admitted for approximately 3 days.
I saw the pt again today in reassessment post drains. This time the pt complained of fatigue and mild malaise. She had eaten that day, was tolerating fluids, and passing flatus.
On exam she exhibited the following:
Oral Temp: 37.5 / 37.7 C ( 2 readings taken)
BP: 130 / 80
HR: 120 / reg
Sitting
BP: 120 / 75
HR: 134 / reg
Standing ( pt complained of mild presyncope)
Her abdominal exam failed to show peritoneal signs, although she did exhibit moderate tenderness in the drain regions. She had bandages over her abdo where the drains had been removed.
I ordered a stat CBC, creatinine, etc. with reassessment tomorrow.
How many peeps would have sent her to the ER versus close re-assessment ?
and why?
Using the retrospectospcope, I believe I made 2 mistakes here:
1. Considering her abnormal vitals: I should have sent this pt to the ER. I did not , as I believe I was influenced by the fact that I had previously sent the pt and her GM to the ER 4 weeks ago.
I did counsel the pt and her GM that she should immediately attend the ER should she get worse ( i.e. abdo pain, vomiting, fever, etc.). At this point, the GM complained about
the significant wait experienced in the ER 4 weeks ago. I indicated that this was immaterial in the care of her grand-daughter, as this could be a potentially life-theatening problem.
2. In retrospect, I should have at least talked with surgery and obtained specialist feedback.
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