I was about to go off topic in the "Should I give up?" thread, but since it bothers me so much when others do that, I thought I would make a new thread.
What does that actually mean? It is a statistic that I have seen folks state before in the DO v MD posts, and mind you, I have NO interest in going down that path. It seems to me that it is simply an observation of number of applicants v number of available seats. What I don't see is how this relates to some qualitative measure of "selectivity" or "quality" or "exclusivity." What is the rationale for it posed by osteopaths? What does it really mean, or at least, what is it supposed to mean when posed in a argument as quoted above?
Thanks in advance.
NOTE: This is not a poke-the-DO-with-a-stick sort of post. It is a sincere question.
Originally posted by muonwhiz:
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Also, the ratio of appliants to accepted students for allopathic schools is 1:3 and for osteopathic schools is 1:5. That should tell you which is more selective.•
What does that actually mean? It is a statistic that I have seen folks state before in the DO v MD posts, and mind you, I have NO interest in going down that path. It seems to me that it is simply an observation of number of applicants v number of available seats. What I don't see is how this relates to some qualitative measure of "selectivity" or "quality" or "exclusivity." What is the rationale for it posed by osteopaths? What does it really mean, or at least, what is it supposed to mean when posed in a argument as quoted above?
Thanks in advance.
NOTE: This is not a poke-the-DO-with-a-stick sort of post. It is a sincere question.