- Joined
- Oct 23, 2008
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I was just thinking, wouldn't it make more since for force to equal mass times velocity.
Lets say something is moving at a constant velocity of 30m/s. Thus its acceleration is essentially 0. Which would mean its force is 0. Yet its obvious that the object has a force.
Another scenario, what if something is moving with an acceleration of 100m/s2. Its force should be higher at 10 seconds, when its v=1000m/s than at 2 seconds when its 200m/s. But according to the formula it will always have the same force.
Lets say something is moving at a constant velocity of 30m/s. Thus its acceleration is essentially 0. Which would mean its force is 0. Yet its obvious that the object has a force.
Another scenario, what if something is moving with an acceleration of 100m/s2. Its force should be higher at 10 seconds, when its v=1000m/s than at 2 seconds when its 200m/s. But according to the formula it will always have the same force.