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Lady in her mid-40s is pre-menopausal. cT1N1 IDC (ER/PR negative, HER2 positive). She got a lumpectomy and full ALND.
4/16 LN positive, no ECE, largest deposit 1.5 cm
Primary tumor widely excised
pT1N2a
She finished six cycles of TCH and now sees me.
I was planning on treating her whole breast, boosting resection cavity and treating SCV. I didn't see much benefit to treating her axilla since she has (a) had a good dissection, (b) she has far less than 50% of LN positive, (c) no ECE, and (d) no LN tumor deposit > 2 cm.
I base this on a Canadian retrospective study. However, I realize this is a highly controversial topic and other data (Beaumont comes to mind) exists.
Thoughts?
4/16 LN positive, no ECE, largest deposit 1.5 cm
Primary tumor widely excised
pT1N2a
She finished six cycles of TCH and now sees me.
I was planning on treating her whole breast, boosting resection cavity and treating SCV. I didn't see much benefit to treating her axilla since she has (a) had a good dissection, (b) she has far less than 50% of LN positive, (c) no ECE, and (d) no LN tumor deposit > 2 cm.
I base this on a Canadian retrospective study. However, I realize this is a highly controversial topic and other data (Beaumont comes to mind) exists.
Thoughts?
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