First off...NOT meant to be a pimping thread...just tossing out a case for discussion amongst fellow colleagues 😀
So...imagine that while on call, you are called to admit a 47 year old white man who presented to the ER after being found unresponsive on the floor by his girlfriend. When the EMTs arrived at the patient's home, they found that his capillary blood sugar was in the low 30s. He was given an amp of D50 and glucagon enroute, after which he regained consciousness. Upon arrival in the ER, labs (Chem-10, CBC) were drawn; his glucose at that time was 40. Another amp of D50 was given and the patient was placed on a D5 drip before you were called to come to the ER.
When you question the patient, he states that he is currently asymptomatic...no F/C/nausea/vomiting/CP/SOB. He is awake, alert and oriented to person, place and date. He has no past medical history to speak of, though he admits to current polysubstance abuse (cocaine, EtOH, MJ, tobacco). Currently does not take any medications; he has not done so for several months. No known drug allergies and no family history to speak of. He lives with his girlfriend who is a diabetic who takes "pills" to manage her diabetes; he is currently unemployed.
Vitals are within normal limits and stable. Physical exam does not reveal any gross abnormalities. EKG demonstrates NSR. While you interview the patient, a nurse comes by to take another CBG reading; this time it's 43.
Any thoughts on how you would manage this patient? Should he go to the floor or to the unit? What other pieces of information would you like to know?
So...imagine that while on call, you are called to admit a 47 year old white man who presented to the ER after being found unresponsive on the floor by his girlfriend. When the EMTs arrived at the patient's home, they found that his capillary blood sugar was in the low 30s. He was given an amp of D50 and glucagon enroute, after which he regained consciousness. Upon arrival in the ER, labs (Chem-10, CBC) were drawn; his glucose at that time was 40. Another amp of D50 was given and the patient was placed on a D5 drip before you were called to come to the ER.
When you question the patient, he states that he is currently asymptomatic...no F/C/nausea/vomiting/CP/SOB. He is awake, alert and oriented to person, place and date. He has no past medical history to speak of, though he admits to current polysubstance abuse (cocaine, EtOH, MJ, tobacco). Currently does not take any medications; he has not done so for several months. No known drug allergies and no family history to speak of. He lives with his girlfriend who is a diabetic who takes "pills" to manage her diabetes; he is currently unemployed.
Vitals are within normal limits and stable. Physical exam does not reveal any gross abnormalities. EKG demonstrates NSR. While you interview the patient, a nurse comes by to take another CBG reading; this time it's 43.
Any thoughts on how you would manage this patient? Should he go to the floor or to the unit? What other pieces of information would you like to know?
