I have 2 questions regarding questions I missed on qbank. After reading the explanation I still don't agree with Kaplan's answers.
One question asks about a conflict where the daughter has power of attorney from 2 years ago and wants to go against a living will from 1 month ago. The Kaplan explanation says that power of attorney overrides a living will. Anyone know where this answer comes from? Cause some law website I looked it up on said that someone with power of attorney cannot go against wishes expressly written out in a living will.
Secondly there is a question about a man who comes into the ED for suicidal, homicidal, and paranoid tendencies. I'm not sure how the whole question is worded, but the gist of it is that the man doesn't want to talk, gets angry when the physician asks him more questions. He has used drugs in the past but denies recent use. The question asks which can be ruled out. Kaplan says you can rule out malingering and the explanation is that usually patients become angry with malingering when the physician digs deeper with the questioning. Since this is exactly how the patient responded, why would you rule that out? 60% of the people got this question right, so I must be missing something. Anyone else have this question?
One question asks about a conflict where the daughter has power of attorney from 2 years ago and wants to go against a living will from 1 month ago. The Kaplan explanation says that power of attorney overrides a living will. Anyone know where this answer comes from? Cause some law website I looked it up on said that someone with power of attorney cannot go against wishes expressly written out in a living will.
Secondly there is a question about a man who comes into the ED for suicidal, homicidal, and paranoid tendencies. I'm not sure how the whole question is worded, but the gist of it is that the man doesn't want to talk, gets angry when the physician asks him more questions. He has used drugs in the past but denies recent use. The question asks which can be ruled out. Kaplan says you can rule out malingering and the explanation is that usually patients become angry with malingering when the physician digs deeper with the questioning. Since this is exactly how the patient responded, why would you rule that out? 60% of the people got this question right, so I must be missing something. Anyone else have this question?