Here are two questions relating to a particle and E Field/Force. I've attached pictures of the two questions.
For #2: I thought the force would increase by a factor of two because F=ma...a 2x change in velocity would mean there is acceleration...so it would be 2F, right? The explanation given by AAMC and Kaplan just mentions F=Eq, so then I thought my logic must be wrong and I shouldn't relating F=ma to F=Eq, until...
I get to #4 and I notice that the question has me relating F=ma=Eq....
Can someone explain why I'm not thinking about this right? Thanks!
For #2: I thought the force would increase by a factor of two because F=ma...a 2x change in velocity would mean there is acceleration...so it would be 2F, right? The explanation given by AAMC and Kaplan just mentions F=Eq, so then I thought my logic must be wrong and I shouldn't relating F=ma to F=Eq, until...
I get to #4 and I notice that the question has me relating F=ma=Eq....
Can someone explain why I'm not thinking about this right? Thanks!