Hey everyone, I just finished AAMC 8 and im having a problem with one of the questions. Question 19 on the PS section asks why someone would use a 10m long incline plane instead of dropping an object from 10m. They answer that it is because it takes longer to get down to the bottom. However, an answer choice is that the final velocity would be less than dropping it from 10m. Shouldnt that be the correct answer? We have a difference in height between the 2 systems which equates to a difference in potential energy and therefore a difference in final velocity ((2gh)^1/2=v). The only was for the two objects to have the same velocity is if the incline plane has the same height as the height that you are dropping the ball from. Though I dont see that implicit in the question.
Thanks!
Thanks!