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According to berkely review:
"a weak base and a strong base of the same concentration require the same moles of acid to be neutralized...because the moles of hydroxide are the same for equimolar bases, regardless of their strengths"
Could someone explain to me why this is true? I assumed that a stronger base would require more moles of acid to be neutralized because it would yield more Hydroxide in solution that needs to be neutralized...what's wrong with my reasoning?
Possible Answer:
Is it because the acid will also react with the base molecules that have not dissociated into hydroxide?
Thanks!
"a weak base and a strong base of the same concentration require the same moles of acid to be neutralized...because the moles of hydroxide are the same for equimolar bases, regardless of their strengths"
Could someone explain to me why this is true? I assumed that a stronger base would require more moles of acid to be neutralized because it would yield more Hydroxide in solution that needs to be neutralized...what's wrong with my reasoning?
Possible Answer:
Is it because the acid will also react with the base molecules that have not dissociated into hydroxide?
Thanks!