ADHD, Schiz, OCD, and the like, are NOT REAL

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scienceisbeauty

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They are social constructions.

NO NO I DO NOT buy this. But I have to write a 20 page essay on it for soon (and for this essay I cannot afford at all to procrastinate). I need people's help on how to come up with something....

Any way to argue this topic at all? He wans it so that it's THEORETICAL and NOT empirical. He said it's not a question one can empirically answer...it's supposed to be an argumentative theoretical paper.

🙁 I have no idea how to write this...let alone write 20 pages on it. Someone, anyone, help?
 
Well the ideas have to be yours...

But if I were going to write a paper like that I'd probably go into a discussion about culturally-bound mental disorders.

I could write 20 pages on this (actually I did in my senior year for an Anthro course, haha) but that wouldn't help you. It might be a good place to start looking for ideas though.
 
Wow... that's a tough one...

Well... maybe they're moving targets? Like ADHD... maybe you get that diagnosis if you're not behaving according to currently expected social norms for children (sitting still, etc), which would not have been an issue or caused problems 100 years ago?

And paranoid schizophrenia may contain elements of irrational things (mind control, everybody out to get you) but given the state of technology, it's not actually *impossible*. And if you're called "paranoid" for thinking the government is performing tests on you without your consent, well, Tuskegee proves it has happened before.

So we're taking actual normal human reactions, declaring them problematic for not fitting into the current demands of our societal institutions and philosophies, and calling them mental illnesses so they can be "treated" by drugging people into submission as the nails that stick out continue to get pounded back in.

That's the best I can do for a position I entirely disagree with. :laugh:
 
I was thinking cultural too.....maybe argue that ADHD and OCD are constructs from our over-stimulated world, schizophrenia is accepted in other cultures (voices of elders/loved onces...hallucinations are visions), etc.

-t
 
They are social constructions.

NO NO I DO NOT buy this. But I have to write a 20 page essay on it for soon (and for this essay I cannot afford at all to procrastinate). I need people's help on how to come up with something....

Any way to argue this topic at all? He wans it so that it's THEORETICAL and NOT empirical. He said it's not a question one can empirically answer...it's supposed to be an argumentative theoretical paper.

🙁 I have no idea how to write this...let alone write 20 pages on it. Someone, anyone, help?

Maybe the goal is to inspire you reach back into the history of psychology and research the cases studied by the likes of great philosophers and early psychologists, not contemporary research scientists.

For instance, Schizophrenia might take you down a path where you examine the works of Freud, Bleuler, Jung, Groff. Groff while a scientific writer still is a philosopher and has some non-empirical work that can be examined.

Work forward from psychological philosophers and not empirical research.

Mark
 
There are plenty of great ways to argue this. Prepare to be Szaszed.

This is the issue I usually never comment on in the forums because most people have never been exposed to ideas like this, and it sounds to a lot of people like it's from Neptune. Also gets some people all angsty. I'm going to put a disclaimer that I don't necessarily endorse this perspective (privately, I'll mention that I buy most of it). But, it's vitally important for everyone to be aware of this idea, and if you don't agree, why it is that you think the idea is weak.

So, mental illness doesn't exist. This is because an illness is by definition biological. Mental illnesses are not biological; they're social constructions.

But, you might say, they are. We have merely to find the biological substrates underlying mental illness. This is wrong, however, for several reasons.
-The definition of mental illness is entirely a social process. It's vital to not romanticize this process. Quite literally, a bunch of people go into a room and vote on what constitutes a particular mental illness.
-This definition issue raises problems. What counts as an illness changes. Homosexuality is easy to pick on here. Homosexuality used to be a bona fide mental illness. Then there was a vote, and now it isn't. Does that mean that homosexuality went from having a biological cause when it was an illness, to not, when it was no longer an illness? Since the definition of mental illness is a social process, literally anything could be classified as a mental illness and so the biological determinist argument necessarily means that all those "mental illnesses" that are conceivable NEED biological bases. This further implies that all problems in living are functions of biological processes.
-Even assuming it is true, then current diagnostic systems are woefully, uselessly inadaquate. Diagnosis of mental disorders is based entirely on behaviors, and not physiological symptoms (i.e. the DSM doesn't list a specific alteration of seratonin levels as a sympton of anything, it mentions feeling badly or fidgiting).

So, there is a fundamental classification error. Diseases are measured against objective criteria (e.g. having an elevated body temperature, having a broken arm bone). Mental illnesses are defined based on what is believed to be right or correct in a society. ADD is a disorder only because our society pathologizes what we see as disobedience and hyperactivity. It's not hard to see how a society could be arranged such as that this is no impediment at all. Does that mean that there is then no illness?

You should be able to see the rest of this argument by now. So, homosexuality was once an illness. Justifiably so, since gay men and lesbians were presenting in clinics wanting to change and calling their sexual orientation itself the presenting problem. But, our society shifted in such a way as to at least take significantly away from the pathologizing of homosexuality to make it more possible to function well as a gay man or lesbian. Recognize that this was never a problem at the level of the indivudual, but rather a problem in society.

Now, imagine that tomorrow a specific biological cause of homosexuality were actually identified (but don't hold your breath for this in reality). What would this mean? If homosexuality is no longer a mental illness, then this is nothing but the explanation of a normal variation on human behavior. So, even if a biological correlate of anything exists, it is in no way sufficient to call anything a mental illness.

🙂
 
Pregnancy and menopause are treated as illnesses too, even if nobody calls it that.

See look at that, you could easily have 20 pages from what JN just said. :laugh:
 
Good post by JN, that should give you some fuel. One caveat though...illness is NOT by definition biological (checked the dictionary since I was pretty sure that wasn't the case), its a more general term. You can work around that, perhaps stating the importance of making the distinction, just didn't want that to trip you up.

The social construct argument is an interesting one, albeit one I still consider largely to be semantic and BS - this is why I'm not going into philosophy!

The problem with social construction is that almost anything can be constructed INTO an illness, though its more difficult to go the opposite direction. Its very difficult to think of a society where cancer is advantageous. However, "brown hair" could easily be socially constructed into an illness.

Of course, if we want to completely blow eachother's minds, what IS "real"? If we do not define them as a disordered does that mean the state of having obsessions and compulsions isn't real? Did the experience of being gay change substantially on the day it was decided it wasn't a disorder? Is that state of being made any different by the label? I don't know how the question is worded, but this is how I would choose to make my argument. It can turn the prof's question around and shove it straight up their backside😉 Of course, you need to know the prof well enough to know they won't be offended by your massaging the question a bit. Some get pissy and fail you for not answering their question, others will love you forever for stuff like this.
 
There is also an argument out there that borderline personality disorder is not real, but merely labels (primarily female) victims of childhood sexual abuse as mentally ill thereby victimizing them for a second time rather than dealing with the true underlying issues. I read an article on this, asked a professor about it and she said it is a real and ongoing debate.
 
Good post by JN, that should give you some fuel. One caveat though...illness is NOT by definition biological (checked the dictionary since I was pretty sure that wasn't the case), its a more general term. You can work around that, perhaps stating the importance of making the distinction, just didn't want that to trip you up.

Thanks Ollie 🙂 Just one thing:

You can never use the dictionary to find the definitions of things in philosophy. Good philo profs will rip you to pieces for it. The simplest explanation is just to look up the definition of "chair": it's wrong in most dictionaries. Everything has to be defined by saying specifically what you mean. So, the OP can work around this, but has to be careful to define terms well.
 
I was thinking cultural too.....maybe argue that ADHD and OCD are constructs from our over-stimulated world, schizophrenia is accepted in other cultures (voices of elders/loved onces...hallucinations are visions), etc.

-t

also if u branch off to talk about the effects of voodoo or witchcraft, mental illness takes a whole new spin 🙂
that right there is 20 pages cuz u can step out of western culture a bit
 
Hi,
This paper that you have to write is kind of crap. Of course it's easy to argue that every mental state is the result of a brain state... it's pretty much the foundation of neuroscience, but when you bring "disease" into it it becomes more complex.

I think that there are two distinct problems in saying that mental disease corresponds to physical disease. The first problem is that the word "disease" is partially defined normatively, which is taken advantage of by "social constructionists", and the second one is a more subtle one about whether or not a description like "pathological" is transitive through explanatory levels.

I think that "Illness" doesn't have a generally accepted definition, but we can use wakefield's notion of "harmful dysfunction" to think about the normative stuff. If we allow that homosexuality involves a dysfunction, then whether or not it is a disease depends on whether it is harmful or not. If it is harmful in some context, then homosexuals might be justified in trying to become heterosexuals and physicians might be justified in assisting them. It's the same with any disease, though. In some society where diabetics are worshipped for their "honey urine", we might not consider diabetes a disease, even though it's dysfunctional, because we might not consider it harmful.

The better argument against mental illness being considered a "disease" is one that uses principles of transitivity through explanatory levels. If you want a good resource on this, try TobyJones on these forums. The idea behind this argument is that you can take a higher-level property of an object, like "blue", and show that even though "the ball is blue" is true, and "the ball is a group of molecules" is true, "the molecules are blue" is false. So the property "blue" isn't transitive from balls the molecules, even though the ball is a group of molecules. With mental illness we can say that although schizophrenia dysfunctional on the behavioral level, it may not necessarily be dysfunctional on the neural level... the property of "being dysfunctional" may not be transitive like that. So it could be the case that no amount of looking at neural function will show us what schizophrenia is, because it only emerges as dysfunctional at a level higher than the neural.

I think that both of these arguments are kind of crap, but I guess I would use a combination of those two to argue that mental illnesses aren't "real" illnesses. At least, when I argue with people about this, they tend to use something like that.
 
To clarify my last post, since I had to cut it short in order to catch my flight back to this frozen tundra I call home, what I was getting at was that if I was forced to argue ADHD and schizophrenia aren't "real" I would do so by arguing that no disorder is real, be it cancer, depression, AIDS, whatever. They're all merely states of being, and our intellectual nature has caused us to categorize say, AIDS, as an illness because we 1) Can identify it on a physical level and 2) Live in a society that values longevity and fears death.

Values of life and death are just as much social constructs as values of happiness and behavior. Therefore if OCD isn't real, cancer isn't either.

JN - Ahhh, but can a dictionary be "wrong"? Or just improper for use in a certain context? Do words have definitions beyond their common usage, or if a word is commonly misused enough, does the definition change? Are words a separate entity with a true definition?

*takes off black turtleneck and black-rimmed glasses".

Okay, I'm done being existential and weird. I feel like a little piece of me died with every sentence I wrote in this thread. Please note that the above post in no way reflects my actual thought processes. It just boils down to my habit of matching what I consider pointless and stupid questions, with equally pointless and stupid answers😉
 
Ollie that was the funniest thing I've read in a while... 😛

Wow, thanks everyone who responded for your help...keep the suggestions coming but I think I can at least write some pages now -- woot!!
 
Theres no real operational definition of mental illness. DSM attempts to define one but it doesn't really work. Too many reasons to name, just look it up.

Then theres the categorical vs dimensional model debate.

Somatoform disorders are caused by stress for the most part so you can write about that. Actually, you can pretty much write about the function of strees with all psychopathology.

Dissociative Disorders are possibly iatrogenic so you can write about that too. If I can think of any others I'll make sure to add them.
 
JN - Ahhh, but can a dictionary be "wrong"? Or just improper for use in a certain context? Do words have definitions beyond their common usage, or if a word is commonly misused enough, does the definition change? Are words a separate entity with a true definition?

Well, yes. It certainly can be wrong. The staff of the OED doesn't get to determine reality. Seriously, don't ever stay a hpilo essay with "Webster's defines (whatever) as..." I had a prof go on for about 5 minutes about how he doesn't care when someone used that in an essay (that was my first philo class... I was really happy that didn't go eith my first plan for the essay, which was t start it exactly that way😀

Okay, I'm done being existential and weird. I feel like a little piece of me died with every sentence I wrote in this thread. Please note that the above post in no way reflects my actual thought processes. It just boils down to my habit of matching what I consider pointless and stupid questions, with equally pointless and stupid answers😉

How is this question stupid? I think it's vitally important. Many more people seriously doubt the existence of mental illnesses than let on to it. As someone who thinks these kinds of ideas make a lot of sense, trust me that when you voice things like this you get a LOT of private support from profs and researchers. Even if you don't agree with it, you should know the argument in its totality to be able to articulate exactly why you think it's wrong. The question itself is vitally important because we have to recognize that we can be wrong.
 
Heh, my point was not that they get to determine reality, I was just trying to spout off something vaguely philosophical sounding.

I'm actually going to have to respectfully disagree, I do think questions like this are stupid. Or, if not stupid, pointless. I'm all about challenging the way we currently think of psychology, and my views on many things in this field aren't exactly "traditional". My problem is that questions like this tend to end up being an argument of semantics. We can debate for hours if depression is an illness, but the reality is that it is a problem for many people and hours I spend trying to define illness vs. disorder vs. bad-brain-stuff is time I'm not spending helping. To me, it boils down to sitting around pondering the meaning of life, vs. going out and making sure my life is meaningful. That's not to say I insist everyone adopt that view, but that's how I think about these things.

If the question was phrased in a manner of "Why is x a problem, how might it be adaptive, and what alternate explanations for it could there be", THAT is a question I think has much more value, and not something I'd have a problem with. Arguing that, say, OCD doesn't exist is just not something I can see value in, because it boils down to a semantic argument about the word "disorder". You aren't denying that there are people with obsessions and compulsions, you're just stuck trying to say society defines this as bad. The "existence" of the symptoms is not in doubt (I don't think anyways, though there's a few disorders you can make a case for), its really just a matter of the labeling. I don't place much value on the label we have for things (again, that's for me personally and I can totally understand why others feel differently).

My last post was said half-jokingly, but I really don't see any reason behavioral disorders are any less socially-constructed than physical illness. If we lived in a society that did not fear death and instead merely acknowledged it as one aspect of the human experience, would cancer be bad? It might be interesting to think about, but it doesn't change the fact that I don't want to get cancer, and want to stop others from getting cancer😉 I could form an argument for social construction for just about anything, but the problem with it in my eyes is that while its generally intended to be an exercise in expansive thought, it usually ends up presenting as very reductionist, with the essence of the arguments centering on language rather than reality.

Again, just my views so I'm not going to try and win you over to my side or anything (not that I think I could anyways)😉 Hope you didn't take any offense from my previous post since I realize I might have came across as harsh and I really don't intend to...it just really isn't my cup of tea, and I really do believe there are better uses for my time than to discuss something like that.
 
I'm going to put a disclaimer that I don't necessarily endorse this perspective (privately, I'll mention that I buy most of it).

Hey JN, I just now caught on to this aside that you actually do buy into this anti-psychiatry stuff. If that's the case, then I'm going to challenge you a little on this.

So, mental illness doesn't exist. This is because an illness is by definition biological. Mental illnesses are not biological; they're social constructions.

If illness is biological by definition, then if mental illnesses don't correspond to neural dysfunction then they can't be illnesses.

Unless you're a very strong type of dualist, then you must believe that mental states supervene on neural states, so the only way to argue that mental illnesses aren't real illnesses is to make a kind of argument about the transitivity of "pathological" from the behavioral to the neural level. Is this what you're trying to do?

The definition of mental illness is entirely a social process. It's vital to not romanticize this process. Quite literally, a bunch of people go into a room and vote on what constitutes a particular mental illness.

Hey, this is not a very strong point. All it means is that psychiatric illnesses are defined syndromally instead of etiologically. This is for a good reason, because we don't know the etiology of any mental illness.

But all medical disorders used to be defined in the same way before we knew about their etiology. Ancient physicians used to talk about a syndrome called "stomach ache", in which the patient had a stomach ache. Now we know that this syndrome has more than one etiology, and since etiology is what is relevant for treatment plans, we categorize the disorders etiologically. "stomach ache" could come from the flu, or it could come from bowel cancer, so there would be two radically different treatments for the same symptoms.

In psychiatry we have a situation in which depression sometimes responds to one pharmacological treatment, and sometimes to another... this is probably due to differences in etiology within the same syndromally defined disorder, which why the goal for psychiatry in the future is to come up with mechanisms for the disorders.

This definition issue raises problems. What counts as an illness changes. Homosexuality is easy to pick on here. Homosexuality used to be a bona fide mental illness. Then there was a vote, and now it isn't. Does that mean that homosexuality went from having a biological cause when it was an illness, to not, when it was no longer an illness?

Hey, this goes back to the concept of "harmful". Obviously there is something biologically different in homosexuals that makes them homosexual. This is kind of a truism since every difference in behavior corresponds to a difference in brain state. Let's also assume that this difference is some kind of dysfunction... well it is on evolutionary grounds, at least. Whether or not it is an illness depends on whether or not it is harmful. If I were a homosexual in a society in which homosexuals were executed, I would be justified in trying to find a treatment to make me heterosexual. In America I would probably be fine. The same thing could be said for any trait, though, including diabetes, provided we cook up some imaginary society in which diabetics are worshipped or whatever, so having diabetes isn't harmful. This just goes to show that the very idea of "disease" has a normative component, but this is obvious, because in order for something to be a disease, it has to be "bad", which is a normative term.

Since the definition of mental illness is a social process, literally anything could be classified as a mental illness and so the biological determinist argument necessarily means that all those "mental illnesses" that are conceivable NEED biological bases. This further implies that all problems in living are functions of biological processes.

Hey, I'm not sure what you're trying to argue here. Are you saying that there are some mental states that don't correspond to brain states? Because if you are, I think you're wrong. "Biological determinism" just means that everything we think or do is based upon a biological state... which is necessarily true unless you believe in dualist interactionism. Do you agree with that?

Even assuming it is true, then current diagnostic systems are woefully, uselessly inadaquate. Diagnosis of mental disorders is based entirely on behaviors, and not physiological symptoms (i.e. the DSM doesn't list a specific alteration of seratonin levels as a sympton of anything, it mentions feeling badly or fidgiting).

Hi, the current diagnostic system is useful. If we diagnose someone with bipolar disorder, then we know they can be treated with lithium. If we diagnose them with schizophrenia, then we know they can be treated with antipsychotics. If there are a pair disorders whose treatment or prognosis don't differ in anyway, then differentiating between them is kind of useless. There are a ton of reasons a person might get a rash, but if they're all treated by the same skin ointment, and none of them have any difference in outcome, then who cares which one they have?

So, there is a fundamental classification error. Diseases are measured against objective criteria (e.g. having an elevated body temperature, having a broken arm bone). Mental illnesses are defined based on what is believed to be right or correct in a society. ADD is a disorder only because our society pathologizes what we see as disobedience and hyperactivity. It's not hard to see how a society could be arranged such as that this is no impediment at all. Does that mean that there is then no illness?

Hi, in a society in which ADD is no impediment, or is somehow a benefit, then it wouldn't be a disease in that society... but that's irrelevant. It's just like sickle cell trait. In Africa it protects people from malaria, so it's not really a disease... at least we wouldn't want to cure it if we could. In the US its health problems outweigh this malaria protection, so we consider it a disease and would cure it if we could... All this means is that the term "disease" isn't a purely objective one, it doesn't have any special ramifications for mental disease over any other type of disease.
 
you can also draw from Cushman's article The Empty Self and expand on it.

Another possibility is the importance of role enactment in psychopathology.

But honestly, you can't go wrong with blaming it all on STRESS. It's all about stress reduction and the pharmaceutic companies trying to make an easy buck. corrupt psychotherapists implanting false memories, psychiatrists and general practitioners dishing out zoloft like it was candy. Its all a conspiracy! A society trying to fill its emptiness with tangibility, materialism, labels, drugs, money...ugh so depressed, I need to pop a zoloft.
 
It's just like sickle cell trait. In Africa it protects people from malaria, so it's not really a disease... at least we wouldn't want to cure it if we could. In the US its health problems outweigh this malaria protection, so we consider it a disease and would cure it if we could...

I hate to pick nits, but sickle cell is just as deadly/miserable in Africa as it is in the U.S. It's the presence of ONE recessive sickle cell gene that is beneficial for malaria protection without any (currently known) ill effects. Two recessive sickle cell genes is just... never good.
 
I hate to pick nits, but sickle cell is just as deadly/miserable in Africa as it is in the U.S. It's the presence of ONE recessive sickle cell gene that is beneficial for malaria protection without any (currently known) ill effects. Two recessive sickle cell genes is just... never good.

Hi, sickle cell trait is the presence of one sickle cell gene, and that is what I was talking about. It's not a recessive trait, but an incompletely dominant trait. Actually there are known complications of sickle cell trait, here is a link:

http://sickle.bwh.harvard.edu/sickle_trait.html
 
I was completely lost before as to HOW in the world I'd write an argumentitive THEORETICAL paper on this

But whoa...I guess I got some realllllly good ideas off of this forum.

KEEP THEM COMING -- I'm liking reading all this stuff; I'll be particularly interested to know how this is going to play out btwn some of the ppl that are in disagreement on this topic...

🙂 *goin to start work on this tmr -- YAY not procrastinatin!!!*
 
I'm actually going to have to respectfully disagree, I do think questions like this are stupid. Or, if not stupid, pointless.

Ok, I see why you think this, but I disagree. How we conceptualize emntal illness has a massive effect on what we do about it. If we see ADD (again to pick on something easy) as a biological disorder, we're more justified in saying that there is a problem with the child himself and that medication is a reasonable treatment plan. If we see the problem behavior as a symptom of a disordered system (bad teachers, no reinforcement for learning, bad school environments, a personality unsuited to sitting still for an hour at a time while being talked at) we're encouraged to attend to the problems in the environment that contribute to the problem. I'm sure you could say that we CAN still attend to those problems while viewing the problem as a disease, but realistically we're not going to.

I'd love to respond to SC's comments but I'm leaving in five minutes for my parents' house in the country for a week, where I will be blissfully unable to access the internet. I think I'll watch some deer instead. 😀
 
Oooh, yes!
Social constructions indeed. Familiar with William Glasser? These so-called illnesses are actually chosen behaviors.😉
 
I'm wondering if this is teetering on the brink of cheating. Scienceisbeauty, would your professor mind that you are consulting a bunch of doctoral/pre-doctoral psych students for collaborative ideas?

I'm just worried about the ethical implications of asking SDN for coursework ideas. I haven't done it (yet)...so, I don't know.

T~ what do you say?
 
I'm wondering if this is teetering on the brink of cheating. Scienceisbeauty, would you professor mind that you are consulting a bunch of doctoral/pre-doctoral psych students for collaborative ideas?

I'm just worried about the ethical implications of asking SDN for coursework ideas. I haven't done it (yet)...so, I don't know.

T~ what do you say?

That's exactly what I was thinking when I gave the vaguest answer possible, haha. But we probably all ask our friends for ideas about papers anyway.
 
In our class (the one for which this paper is due) the students consult each other on an all too frequent basis. He knows this. We edit each others papers give each other suggestions, etc. This isn't much different. No one is writing my paper for me eh?
🙂 Plus, he knows about SDN. He even knows my user name. I think he knows I posted this because I emailed him re: one of your guys' comments. He said it was brilliant and to go forth with expanding on it if I liked.
I couldn't ask my classmates this time because I got sick 🙁 🙁 and so I didn't do the paper while other people were working on it. Now everyone has gone away for the holidays. But you guys are here, so I thought you guys were just as awesome to ask.
 
I'm wondering if this is teetering on the brink of cheating. Scienceisbeauty, would you professor mind that you are consulting a bunch of doctoral/pre-doctoral psych students for collaborative ideas?

I'm just worried about the ethical implications of asking SDN for coursework ideas. I haven't done it (yet)...so, I don't know.

T~ what do you say?

Much like professional writings/publications, people often consult others and seek input and feedback, though it is imperative that original ideas and original work is produced. I think an approach/theory is fine to discuss, as long as direct ideas aren't transposed to the paper.

Often research ideas are the result of a bunch of people kick ideas around. As long as scienceisbeauty writes her own work and doesn't copy text and/or direct arguments, I don't see a problem. It seems like a good discussion, so I don't see why there would be a problem in its current form.

-t
 
Much like professional writings/publications, people often consult others and seek input and feedback, though it is imperative that original ideas and original work is produced. I think an approach/theory is fine to discuss, as long as direct ideas aren't transposed to the paper.

Often research ideas are the result of a bunch of people kick ideas around. As long as scienceisbeauty writes her own work and doesn't copy text and/or direct arguments, I don't see a problem. It seems like a good discussion, so I don't see why there would be a problem in its current form.

-t

Well said. Thank you. 😉
 
I think he knows I posted this because I emailed him re: one of your guys' comments. He said it was brilliant and to go forth with expanding on it if I liked.

Was it me? 😛 Cuz that would totally stoke my ego.

I just got back to a stable net connection, and hopefully will get a chance to reply to some of the comments related to my first post tomorrow. So, maybe if you're not done the paper yet you might find one or two more ideas. The "I don't see race" thread is calling my name too. Forums sure were hopping during the holidays!
 
Back from the country! Here we go.

If illness is biological by definition, then if mental illnesses don't correspond to neural dysfunction then they can't be illnesses.

Unless you're a very strong type of dualist, then you must believe that mental states supervene on neural states, so the only way to argue that mental illnesses aren't real illnesses is to make a kind of argument about the transitivity of "pathological" from the behavioral to the neural level. Is this what you're trying to do?

You could use a transitive argument, but I wasn't trying to and wouldn't suggest that it be used in the OP's paper, at least. 😛 I think you're mistaken about something when you say "neural states," which I'll mention shortly, since you mention it again (fifth comment down I think).

(re: social definition of disease)
Hey, this is not a very strong point. All it means is that psychiatric illnesses are defined syndromally instead of etiologically. This is for a good reason, because we don't know the etiology of any mental illness.

I disagree. I think it's vitally important. Since mental illnesses are defined by a small group of people according to what's deemed to be "right" or "wrong" within a society, you can't help but get flawed definitions. And that's happened over and over. If we don't know the etiology of the diseases, I would argue that we should reserve judgment on the topic until we have enough information to make real decisions. That doesn't preclude using some sort of diagnostic system as a guide, but it does stand in opposition to using a system like the DSM as it frequently is now. Also, I agree with your last comment that "we don't know the etiology of any mental illness," and think it's telling that decades upon decades of research has never succedded in producing this.

But all medical disorders used to be defined in the same way before we knew about their etiology. Ancient physicians used to talk about a syndrome called "stomach ache", in which the patient had a stomach ache. Now we know that this syndrome has more than one etiology, and since etiology is what is relevant for treatment plans, we categorize the disorders etiologically. "stomach ache" could come from the flu, or it could come from bowel cancer, so there would be two radically different treatments for the same symptoms.

Right, so the accurate definition of the problem helped to guide treatment, which was different depending on the specific cause of the disease. As you correctly state, moving away from a broad, symptom-based treatment plan onto treatments based on etiology was a good move. I'm not clear on how this helps your case, but I see how it helps mine....

In psychiatry we have a situation in which depression sometimes responds to one pharmacological treatment, and sometimes to another... this is probably due to differences in etiology within the same syndromally defined disorder, which why the goal for psychiatry in the future is to come up with mechanisms for the disorders.

If this is the future goal, we shouldn't be applying diagnostic tools as if this goal has already been attained. I think this speaks to more accurately finding biological correlates of disorders in order to alleviate symptoms, but I'm not catching how this relates to the original comments.

Hey, this goes back to the concept of "harmful". Obviously there is something biologically different in homosexuals that makes them homosexual. This is kind of a truism since every difference in behavior corresponds to a difference in brain state. Let's also assume that this difference is some kind of dysfunction... well it is on evolutionary grounds, at least. Whether or not it is an illness depends on whether or not it is harmful. If I were a homosexual in a society in which homosexuals were executed, I would be justified in trying to find a treatment to make me heterosexual. In America I would probably be fine. The same thing could be said for any trait, though, including diabetes, provided we cook up some imaginary society in which diabetics are worshipped or whatever, so having diabetes isn't harmful. This just goes to show that the very idea of "disease" has a normative component, but this is obvious, because in order for something to be a disease, it has to be "bad", which is a normative term.

Now things can get interesting. "Something biologically different in homosexuals makes them homosexual." You seem to be holding a sort of binary belief here: That there are "homosexual" and "not-homosexual," and that there's some reliable difference between the two. Does this stance also apply to your beliefs about, say, depression or ADD? That a person either has ADD or doesn't have ADD? If so, I'd say that belief is flawed.

Using sexuality: First off, the idea that there's some sort of binary state for sexuality is just incorrect, and studies on that are not hard to come by. Rather, sexuality exists on a wide, bidimensional continuum. You could contend that there are seperate brain states for each degree of sexual attraction to each sex, but I'd seriously doubt that neuronal differences between people with similar sexual attractions are especially similar, meaning that even if a difference exists I'm not sure how useful that would be. I don't actually think it would mean anything particularly interesting anyway.

Turning to, say depression, if you continue this line of thought things also don't work out especially well. Given that most illnesses can manifest in a variety of different ways, I doubt that the brain state in a person who fills the depression criteria in one way is the same as the brain state of a person who fills it in another way. I'm also not convinced that the brain state of someone who has depression for less than 6 months is different from that of someone who's had it more than 6 months. So, again diagnostic criteria aren't especaiily useful and are completely arbitrary. Even if we could find a specific brain state and "correct" it, that too is essentially meaningless. Conceivably I could find the brain state that causes people to like the color yellow and inhibit it; that doesn't mean that liking yellow was a disorder.

So, you write that homosexuality would be a disorder in one society and not another. It's clear to me that this means that the society is disordered and not the individual. People with the flu aren't sick in one society and not another. You make a hypothetical example of holy diabetics, but I'm not clear on how that pertains. It seems clear to me that even in that society they would still need some form of treatment or die prematurely....

Incidently, homosexuality is not biologically maladaptive. Males aren't in particularly high evolutionary demand. Also, in some animal species, male homosexuals are important to genetic variety--in lion prides, a male lion will sometimes go off and have intercourse with the alpha, at which time all the betas run in and mate with the females. Very useful.

Hey, I'm not sure what you're trying to argue here. Are you saying that there are some mental states that don't correspond to brain states? Because if you are, I think you're wrong. "Biological determinism" just means that everything we think or do is based upon a biological state... which is necessarily true unless you believe in dualist interactionism. Do you agree with that?

The argument is very simple: Let's decide that "douchbaggery" is a mental illness. DB is characterized by people wearing pink polo shorts and popped collars. That's not really so bizarre; let's just assume we convinced some people and got enough votes on committee. The argument is simply that it's stupid to then go look for a DB gene or brain structure and call that a "cause." Even if there is some reliable brain difference in DB patients, say when they see a sale at Abercrombie & Fitch (and, really, there probabaly would be), it doesn't mean anything. Of course there's going to be some biological correlate--there can't not be. I think I covered why a biological correlate isn't particularly important in my first post, last paragraph.

Hi, the current diagnostic system is useful. If we diagnose someone with bipolar disorder, then we know they can be treated with lithium. If we diagnose them with schizophrenia, then we know they can be treated with antipsychotics. If there are a pair disorders whose treatment or prognosis don't differ in anyway, then differentiating between them is kind of useless. There are a ton of reasons a person might get a rash, but if they're all treated by the same skin ointment, and none of them have any difference in outcome, then who cares which one they have?

If that's the way things actually worked, that would be great. But it's not. The DSM is treated as if the arbitrary distinctions are real and meaningful. Earlier you mentioned treatments that work for some people and not others. You also mentioned how much better it was when treatments for stomach aches were based on etiology and not symptoms. Again, I agree, but it's really not that important to the argument.

Hi, in a society in which ADD is no impediment, or is somehow a benefit, then it wouldn't be a disease in that society... but that's irrelevant. It's just like sickle cell trait. In Africa it protects people from malaria, so it's not really a disease... at least we wouldn't want to cure it if we could. In the US its health problems outweigh this malaria protection, so we consider it a disease and would cure it if we could... All this means is that the term "disease" isn't a purely objective one, it doesn't have any special ramifications for mental disease over any other type of disease.

I'm not sure what you mean by "In Africa it protects people from malaria, so it's not really a disease." It does something benificial but it also causes problems, so I'm not clear how anemia is "not a disease" in one part of the world. But, anyway, that's not at all what I was saying. Malaria is a problem because it causes people to sicken and die through infection. Anemia causes people to weaken (and then die, usually, in Sub-Saharan Africa). ADD on the other hand is a problem only because we make it one, and for no other reason at all. Nothing we could do would stop Malaria from being an infection, or anemia from weakening people. There are plenty of things we can do, however, that would make being hyper and figity in a classroom nonproblematic.

So, just so it's clear: the argument isn't "meds don't do anything" or "people don't really get depressed" or even "we shouldn't give people meds" (even though some people believe those arguments to naturally follow this one). The argument is that these disorders are socially defined and so are inextricably linked to what's thought of as right or wrong in society, as opposed to being based on some objective criteria, and that this definition can change based on social changes (which shouldn't be able to happen with a real disease).
 
Hi, it's good to hear from you.

I disagree. I think it's vitally important. Since mental illnesses are defined by a small group of people according to what's deemed to be "right" or "wrong" within a society, you can't help but get flawed definitions.

Hey, first off I want to clarify my position a bit. I am pretty dubious of a lot of the categories found in the DSM, and I don't really think that the DSM in general is drawn up on natural boundaries. What I do think, though, is that certain categories of mental illness mentioned by the OP are undeniably illness; schizophrenia, OCD, autism, Bipolar... you know, the big ones.

I'm doubtful about personality disorders and a host of other disorders in the DSM, but I think that the concept "mental illness" qua illness is coherent and appropriate in at least those major cases.

So regarding your point that a small group of people determine that the syndromes that we call "schizophrenia" and "OCD" are, in fact diseases, I think you're mischaracterizing the situation.

I guess this small group that you refer to are those people who write the DSM, but classifying schizophrenia as an illness is not some idea they came up with. All but an extremely small group of people characterize schizophrenia as an illness... it's not a small group. Also, people with schizophrenia are dysfunctional, die early, and show up to physicians offices for treatment.

If you want to argue about personality disorders then I might be more inclined to listen to your argument, but the whole category of "mental illness" isn't cast into disrepute on their account.

And that's happened over and over. If we don't know the etiology of the diseases, I would argue that we should reserve judgment on the topic until we have enough information to make real decisions.

Hey, I don't understand what you mean here. Do you mean that we shouldn't treat a disease until we understand it's etiology? I don't think that's what you could mean...

That doesn't preclude using some sort of diagnostic system as a guide, but it does stand in opposition to using a system like the DSM as it frequently is now.

What do you mean? What aspect about the DSM is wrong in your opinion? I can think of a few myself, but when it comes to categorizing mental illness for the purpose of making consistent diagnoses then I think the DSM is fine... Of course, a lot of the disorders may not really be single disorders at all, but as long as they all have the same treatment, or lack of one, I don't see this as too much of a practical problem.

Also, I agree with your last comment that "we don't know the etiology of any mental illness," and think it's telling that decades upon decades of research has never succeeded in producing this.

Hi, I think that you're underestimating how difficult it is to study the brain. We haven't exactly had very effective tools throughout all these decades of research, and we still don't have them... It will probably take a long time to discover the real cause of schizophrenia, but until that time I think we can still treat schizophrenics with antipsychotics and treat them as we treat people who are ill...

Right, so the accurate definition of the problem helped to guide treatment, which was different depending on the specific cause of the disease. As you correctly state, moving away from a broad, symptom-based treatment plan onto treatments based on etiology was a good move. I'm not clear on how this helps your case, but I see how it helps mine....

Hi, my point is that all disease categories begin as syndromes and become more specified as we determine etiologies. That just means that psychiatry is still at the stage that the rest of medicine was in 150 years ago... it doesn't mean that the disorders under study don't exist because they are only defined syndromally.

It's true that as we determine the causes of mental illnesses we will find that what we thought were many categories are, in fact, one, and that what we considered to be one category is really many... but the question we're asking isn't about that, it's about whether these categories can be described as "illnesses".

How does this help your argument?

If this is the future goal, we shouldn't be applying diagnostic tools as if this goal has already been attained. I think this speaks to more accurately finding biological correlates of disorders in order to alleviate symptoms, but I'm not catching how this relates to the original comments.

Hi, I'm not sure I understand you here. Why do you say "the biological correlates of disorder"? The biological state isn't correlated with the disorder, it is the definition of the disorder... with the understanding that the biological dysfunction is the proximate cause of the symptoms, regardless of the presence of an environmental stimulus that may have resulted in that biological dysfunction.

I think you may have to describe your position a bit clearer for me to understand here.

continued on next post
 
Now things can get interesting. "Something biologically different in homosexuals makes them homosexual." You seem to be holding a sort of binary belief here: That there are "homosexual" and "not-homosexual," and that there's some reliable difference between the two. Does this stance also apply to your beliefs about, say, depression or ADD? That a person either has ADD or doesn't have ADD? If so, I'd say that belief is flawed.

Hi, I don't think that any of these conditions represents a binary state. I think in most cases psychiatric illnesses are of the same kind as high blood pressure. There is a certain amount of melancholy that is not harmful, and there is a certain amount that will lead to immediate suicide... somewhere in the middle is where we should be concerned, but where exactly is difficult to say.

So, regarding homosexuality... some people are gay, some are straight, and some are in between. There's a certain level of gayness, though, that a person has to have to self-identify as "bisexual" and a certain amount more that is required to identify as "homosexual". But all points on this spectrum, and the spectrum itself, corresponds to some physiological spectrum, or spectra, somewhere in the brain.

but I'd seriously doubt that neuronal differences between people with similar sexual attractions are especially similar, meaning that even if a difference exists I'm not sure how useful that would be. I don't actually think it would mean anything particularly interesting anyway.

Hi, well I don't think that it is useful at all. Only in the sense that exclusive homosexuality prevents a person from passing down their genes, so it is at least a dysfunction in a very broad sense. As long as there is a difference that diminishes some biological function I think that we can call it a dysfunction. If the dysfunction is subjectively "harmful", then we can call it a disease. We don't have to know what the difference exactly is, as long as a differences can be theoretically demonstrated...

Turning to, say depression, if you continue this line of thought things also don't work out especially well. Given that most illnesses can manifest in a variety of different ways, I doubt that the brain state in a person who fills the depression criteria in one way is the same as the brain state of a person who fills it in another way.

Hi, I agree. But each different etiology is a different disorder... As we discover different etiologies of depression we will be discovering subtypes of depression that will lead us to different treatments.

I'm also not convinced that the brain state of someone who has depression for less than 6 months is different from that of someone who's had it more than 6 months. So, again diagnostic criteria aren't especially useful and are completely arbitrary.

Hi, I agree with some points. If a person has a neural disorder that causes depression then they will have it during the first 6 months and the last 6 months. We use that 6 month criteria to differentiate between really severe depression and not severe depression... that's all.

Even if we could find a specific brain state and "correct" it, that too is essentially meaningless. Conceivably I could find the brain state that causes people to like the color yellow and inhibit it; that doesn't mean that liking yellow was a disorder.

Hi, I think you're right... but being so depressed that you kill yourself is definitely a disorder. Being so sad all the time that you can't get a job is also probably a disorder... being sad enough to want to listen to the Cure and dress in black... well that's probably not a disorder. Somewhere there's a line, though, just like the line that separates high blood pressure from normal blood pressure.

So, you write that homosexuality would be a disorder in one society and not another. It's clear to me that this means that the society is disordered and not the individual. People with the flu aren't sick in one society and not another. You make a hypothetical example of holy diabetics, but I'm not clear on how that pertains. It seems clear to me that even in that society they would still need some form of treatment or die prematurely....

Hi, from the perspective of the individual who might be killed for being a homosexual... I think they would be right to seek treatment, if one existed. As I have defined disease, as a harmful dysfunction, this would qualify it as a disease...

I don't think that there are many examples of this kind, though, and admittedly the diabetes example is strained. But suppose that the average lifespan in the diabetes-worshipping society is only 21 anyway... then diabetes might not kill early... in any case, my point was that the concept of "harm" is necessarily normative, with all diseases, not only psychiatric diseases.

I'm going to continue this in another post, it's getting too long.
 
The argument is very simple: Let's decide that "douchbaggery" is a mental illness. DB is characterized by people wearing pink polo shorts and popped collars. That's not really so bizarre; let's just assume we convinced some people and got enough votes on committee.

Well, in order for Douchebaggery to be an illness, we have to demonstrate that it is a harmful dysfunction... it's not really related to the committee directly.

The argument is simply that it's stupid to then go look for a DB gene or brain structure and call that a "cause." Even if there is some reliable brain difference in DB patients, say when they see a sale at Abercrombie & Fitch (and, really, there probably would be), it doesn't mean anything. Of course there's going to be some biological correlate--there can't not be. I think I covered why a biological correlate isn't particularly important in my first post, last paragraph.

Hi, in short, there will be a very complex multigenic biological cause for being a douchebag... That doesn't make it a harmful dysfunction, though.

I'm not sure what you mean by "In Africa it protects people from malaria, so it's not really a disease." It does something benificial but it also causes problems, so I'm not clear how anemia is "not a disease" in one part of the world.

Hi, it's not sickle cell anemia, it's sickle cell trait. That's only one copy of the gene. It is known to cause exercise-related sudden death in a small number of people, but the malaria protective benefit is a lot more pronounced. In the US, though, where malaria is not a problem, all that's left is the possibility of sudden death, with nothing to outweigh it.

The argument is that these disorders are socially defined and so are inextricably linked to what's thought of as right or wrong in society, as opposed to being based on some objective criteria, and that this definition can change based on social changes (which shouldn't be able to happen with a real disease).

Hi, my argument is that all disease has a normative component because all diseases must be "bad". Think about the X-men... flying and shooting lasers out of your eyes is not a disease because it's not "bad", now thing about the elephant man, that's "bad" and hence a disease. It's hard to see the normative component of most disease because dying is so obviously "bad" that we don't consider it to be an issue for debate, but it is, nonetheless a normative evaluation, and therefore subject to the kind of change that changes all normative evaluations.

I hope that last part is clear, it's really my position in a nutshell...

Thanks for the discussion, sorry I wrote so much.

edit: I did some surgery on these posts to break them up more.
 
Hi SMC,

So, I'm seeing that a lot of what you take issue with has to do with the neurological aspects of mental illness, and what you see as social definition of disease as a universal phenomenon and not limited to only mental illnesses. I'll try to sum things up so as to avoid a ridiculously long point-by-point commentary.

As far as neurological things go, the argument is, very basically, this: All behaviours will have neurological correlates and causes of some degree of complexity and individual uniqueness. Of themselves, those neurological events aren't especially interesting. They're given meaning based on our evaluation of the behaviours that come along with them. So, to focus on that really only gets around the main point--that for mental illnesses in particular, definition and diagnosis is inextricable from ethical and moral judgments about what's "good" or "right" within a society (you might simply disagree with this point, I think, in which case I'm not sure how much headway either of us could make 😛). This is not, the case, I would contend, with other illnesses. You can make up a hypothetical example of diabetes worshippers, but I think it's telling that no society has ever existed that worshipped compound fractures or glaucoma. Judgments about mental illness, however, vary to a huge degree by culture. Homosexuality is a good example, and it seems to me to be clear to me that if homosexuality can be a "disorder" in one society and not another, then it's fundamentally different from, say, a broken leg. I would contend that this difference lies in the evaluation of the behaviour by society, and that there's a difference between a judgment based on a moral and ethical evaluation of the behaviour as opposed to a judgment based on, say, comparing a functioning arm to a nonfunctioning one. Applying the example to homosexuality again, a gay man would be identified as improperly functioning solely because of a damaged social structure, while a person with a broken arm or with cancer has a problem in functioning because or physical damage to the optimal functioning of that particular body system.
 
NICE! There was some stuff I had confusion with when developing my argument but you cleared it up rather nicely! 😛
 
This last post actually clarified alot of what you were saying for me - looking back I'm not sure why I didn't get it before, but I get it now!

I think its a very valid point for issues like homosexuality or for things like adjustment disorder, bereavement, etc.

Where I disagree is when this is extended to things like schizophrenia, ADHD, major depression. If someone is so depressed they won't leave their bed, catatonic and unable to care for themselves, or so hyper and impulsive they're starting fist fights at the drop of a hat and are unable to complete a task, that doesn't seem to me to be as culture-bound.

This is related to what I was starting to get at (though I wasn't doing a great job of explaining it). The problem with disorder/not a disorder is that it categorizes things that regardless of what DSM says, I don't believe exist as categories. I have a great deal more flexibility (and would fully support) a discussion that we over-categorize things as disorders by setting too low a threshold. My "pointless and stupid" comment earlier was mostly because the essay is also supposed to argue that a catatonic individual doesn't have a disorder. I see diabetes worship as a more likely scenario than a culture where catatonia is not a problem. If you want to have turf wars over the middle ground between disorder/non-disorder I would be all about that🙂 However, I still don't see how one can argue against the existence of all mental illness without acknowledging that physical illness may not exist either. It just seems to me to be an arbitrary choice of what we are going to question the reality of. I'm content to work with the current contexts of reality, but what I take issue with is what seems to me to be taking issue with very specific assumptions, while ignoring much broader assumptions. So I guess we are disagreeing on the subject you mentioned (that mental illness involves ethical and moral judgments about society). I don't think that is the case any more with mental illness than with physical illness. True, it may be more common for societies to question mental illness, but I think that's due to the fact that we are very visual creatures and tend to accept things we can directly physically see (e.g. a virus) and doubt things that we can't (e.g. depression). If I'm going to challenge an assumption about our society, I'd challenge the fact that so many people believe visual representation is the end-all be-all of reality😉
 
Hey JN, good to hear from you

Hi SMC,
I'll try to sum things up so as to avoid a ridiculously long point-by-point commentary.

Point taken

for mental illnesses in particular, definition and diagnosis is inextricable from ethical and moral judgments about what's "good" or "right" within a society

Hi, I agree with everything except the "in particular". In order for something to be a disease, it has to be "bad", which means that it involves a normative judgment. Some diseases, like a broken leg, seem so obviously "bad" to us that it seems like an objective fact, but it's not... Even though no society on earth has ever worshipped broken legs, the fact that broken legs are "bad" is still a normative judgment that takes place in every society... we just all happen to agree.

This is not necessarily so with all diseases... pedophilia might be one example. We can easily imagine a society in which being molested as a child is "all a part of growing up", and in these societies pedophiles might not be seen as having a problem. In our society we want our children to grow up free from molestation, so we define molestation as "bad".

If you concede that being a pedophile represents a biological dysfunction, which you may not, then this is a case in which the classification of "disease" vs. "not-disease" varies solely with it's normative components... but the judgment about pedophilia is not different in kind than the judgment about the broken leg, it's just that the result is not as consistent.

Homosexuality is a good example, and it seems to me to be clear to me that if homosexuality can be a "disorder" in one society and not another, then it's fundamentally different from, say, a broken leg.

Just because there's never been any broken-leg-worshipping society doesn't mean that such a society is inconceivable, and if it is conceivable, then broken leg is conceivably not a disease... There's not a principled difference between the two, just a difference in what human society tends to think is good and bad.
 
I think its a very valid point for issues like homosexuality or for things like adjustment disorder, bereavement, etc.

Where I disagree is when this is extended to things like schizophrenia, ADHD, major depression. If someone is so depressed they won't leave their bed, catatonic and unable to care for themselves, or so hyper and impulsive they're starting fist fights at the drop of a hat and are unable to complete a task, that doesn't seem to me to be as culture-bound.

Hi, I tend to think the same. I'm planning on a career in psychiatry, and I wish that I never had to deal with any of that stuff like adjustment d/o, or bereavement. In fact, I don't ever want to see any personality d/o either... That's stuff for psychology, to me... I'm not sure what psychiatry has to offer those guys.

Personally, I kind of want psychiatry to leave the therapy business altogether... you can only be good at one thing, you know... either it's knowing about psychopharmacology, or it's knowing about psychotherapy, not both... I'm sure a lot of people here would disagree...

I suppose that psychologists shouldn't have a problem dealing with things like bereavement, which aren't really dysfunctions of anything... but I think that psychiatry needs to limit itself to actual diseases...

...And by actual diseases, I mean Schizophrenia, OCD, Major Depression... you know, the big obvious ones. I've mentioned this before, but I don't forsee psychiatry ever having any tools that are particularly good for personality disorders, but I forsee a day when those big ones can be completely controlled pharmacologically.

Although, I also want to say that I don't think there's a person alive, mentally ill or not, that wouldn't benefit from some kind of psychological therapy.
 
Point taken

Oh! haha, I realize that my "point-by-point" comment may have sounded bitchy! I just meant that I had no desire (or ability; I've just been on planes for 15 hours...) to make such a post; it wasn't a backhanded remark about your previous posts 😛

Hi, I agree with everything except the "in particular". In order for something to be a disease, it has to be "bad", which means that it involves a normative judgment. Some diseases, like a broken leg, seem so obviously "bad" to us that it seems like an objective fact, but it's not... Even though no society on earth has ever worshipped broken legs, the fact that broken legs are "bad" is still a normative judgment that takes place in every society... we just all happen to agree.

Ok... I'd say there's a fundamental difference between us there and I think that disagreement is probably the main source of our difference of opinion. I see judgments about things like broken legs and heart disease to be fundamentally different from judgments about personal beliefs and behaviours, which is the crux of mental illness as I see it. We might just have to agree to disagree on that one then 😛

This is not necessarily so with all diseases... pedophilia might be one example. We can easily imagine a society in which being molested as a child is "all a part of growing up", and in these societies pedophiles might not be seen as having a problem. In our society we want our children to grow up free from molestation, so we define molestation as "bad".

If you concede that being a pedophile represents a biological dysfunction, which you may not, then this is a case in which the classification of "disease" vs. "not-disease" varies solely with it's normative components... but the judgment about pedophilia is not different in kind than the judgment about the broken leg, it's just that the result is not as consistent.

I actually don't think pedophilia represents a biological dysfunction. To me, this example shows how it's not intrinsically bad to make the sort of judgments about beliefs and behaviours that I've been writing about--I think pedophilia should be a crime and individuals who have pedophilic attractions should be treated to whatever extent possible, but my judgment about that is based entirely on my moral and ethical appraisal of the behaviour and beliefs, not about any physical quality of them.

Ollie said:
Where I disagree is when this is extended to things like schizophrenia, ADHD, major depression. If someone is so depressed they won't leave their bed, catatonic and unable to care for themselves, or so hyper and impulsive they're starting fist fights at the drop of a hat and are unable to complete a task, that doesn't seem to me to be as culture-bound.

Well, you're in the camp with most healthy skeptics if you have doubts about some disorders. However, ADD/ADHD in particular is a major point of contention for people who hold beliefs similar to mine--I actually thinks its prettymuch entirely a product of social and cultural issues. Even the "big ones" are up for grabs by people who hold beliefs similar to mine, or more extreme.
 
I see judgments about things like broken legs and heart disease to be fundamentally different from judgments about personal beliefs and behaviours, which is the crux of mental illness as I see it.

Well, they're both normative judgments. It's just that we all tend to agree that heart disease is "bad", whereas it's not clear that borderline personality disorder is necessarily "bad". Some people might like that kind of personality... So to me there is not a difference in kind, just in degree here.

There is probably also a problem with personality disorders being pretty invalid, I think. I don't think there's anything like a BPD gene, or mechanism... it's just a crappy personality that people tend not to like... there's a world of difference between that and schizophrenia. I definitely don't think that there is a biological dysfunction involved in personality disorders. Does psychology have much success with that stuff? I guess if anything could work it would be that...

I actually don't think pedophilia represents a biological dysfunction.

Yeah.... since we're really only talking about the normative aspect of disease there's not a lot to be said about biological dysfunctions. If something isn't a dysfunction then it can't be a disease, even if it's really a bad thing. It's only those things that are biological dysfunctions but may or may not be bad in different circumstances that can flip-flop between disease and not-disease across cultures/settings.

I actually thinks its pretty much entirely a product of social and cultural issues. Even the "big ones" are up for grabs by people who hold beliefs similar to mine, or more extreme.

Isn't that a bit much, though? Those "big ones" are pretty bad to have, and it has nothing to do with society... If a woman hears voices after she gives birth that cause her to strangle her baby... that's not really a social construct, is it? In OCD the patient has the express knowledge that their behavior is ridiculous, but still can't control it... it's not that they are simply stigmatized by society, they know that something is wrong with them...

So do you believe that Alzheimer's is a disease?
 
Isn't that a bit much, though? Those "big ones" are pretty bad to have, and it has nothing to do with society... If a woman hears voices after she gives birth that cause her to strangle her baby... that's not really a social construct, is it? In OCD the patient has the express knowledge that their behavior is ridiculous, but still can't control it... it's not that they are simply stigmatized by society, they know that something is wrong with them...

Well, I'd say that's loading the question... what if the voices tell the women to be a nice and wonderful person instead? The socialization comes in when we make moral and ethical judgments about behaviours and beliefs when we judge them to be right or wrong, and call wrong a disease. I don't see a corresponding moral judgment in the treatment of a fractured arm.

Actually I think OCD is a neurological issue resulting from overuse and pathological strengthening of particular neural circuits to the detriment of others, but that's neither here nor there. I don't think it's a disease in the same way that the flu is a disease, but I also think it's reasonable to recognize the ill effects and treat them.

So do you believe that Alzheimer's is a disease?

Yes; I think it's a physical disease of the brain, much closer to the flu or a broken arm than, say, depression or dissociative fugue.
 
Well, I'd say that's loading the question... what if the voices tell the women to be a nice and wonderful person instead?

Hi, so you mean that hallucinations, while dysfunctional, may not be normatively judged to be "bad"? I agree. In order to be a disease, a dysfunction must also be harmful. If we pretend that friendly encouraging hallucinations are not really harmful, then they are not really a disease... but post-partum psychosis doesn't usually take that form.

Actually, I think you may have lost me here...

The socialization comes in when we make moral and ethical judgments about behaviours and beliefs when we judge them to be right or wrong, and call wrong a disease
.

Hi, well they're not moral and ethical judgments, usually... it's not immoral, or unethical to wrap tinfoil around your head to keep voices away, or to pound nails into your head to protect from evil... we just judge those behaviors to be "sick" and treat them accordingly. Moral and ethical judgments don't really come into it...

After all, it's the immorality of the mother killing her child that causes us to diagnose post-partum psychosis, but rather the presence of hallucinated voices telling her to kill her child... but hearing voices isn't immoral.

I don't see a corresponding moral judgment in the treatment of a fractured arm
.

But you must judge that fractured arms are "bad"? That's the only judgment required to make a definition normative. If nobody though fractured arms were bad, then no one would seek treatment. It's just hard to imagine that kind of scenario.

Actually I think OCD is a neurological issue resulting from overuse and pathological strengthening of particular neural circuits to the detriment of others, but that's neither here nor there. I don't think it's a disease in the same way that the flu is a disease, but I also think it's reasonable to recognize the ill effects and treat them.

Well, you've completely lost me here. Of course OCD is a neurological disorder... So are all the other diseases we're talking about. I thought the issue was that people have to decide that these disorders are worthy of being called "diseases", which makes them subjective. But I'm taking for granted that they're all neurological disorders... at least the big ones...

Yes; I think [Alzheimer's] a physical disease of the brain, much closer to the flu or a broken arm than, say, depression or dissociative fugue.

But before the discovery of amyloid plaques, Alzheimer's was a mental illness... doesn't that mean that you can't generalize about mental illnesses not being real diseases...
 
In OCD the patient has the express knowledge that their behavior is ridiculous, but still can't control it... it's not that they are simply stigmatized by society, they know that something is wrong with them...

What about the subset of OCD patients without insight? Or Anoxeria nervosa, which is charactered by a lack of insight and a good about of research has "tied" in with OCD (genetically, behavorially, therapy-wise [in fact, ERP is the most empirically proven AN treatment]).

And hasn't studies shown that CBT/ERP is just as good as, if not better than, meds at treating OCD and producing similar neurological results and lower relapse rates?

(And because I'm a research geek, feel free to ask for citations. 🙂 )

On disease classification: There's a substantial number of Deaf individuals who do not believe deafness is a disability (in fact, the ASL sign for disability does not include deafness) and should not be "cured" or "treated." Just throwing that out there...
 
I guess what I'm wondering is what would change if we stopped thinking of these things as disorders. Would we just call them sub-optimal functioning? Should we stop treating people with ADHD, kick them to the curb, and tell society we need to stop expecting people to pay attention to what they are doing and not start fights?

Even if I understand the point, I'm still failing to see how any good could come of this, even if it is true (and I don't believe it is).
 
What about the subset of OCD patients without insight?

Hi, well I'm not saying that insight is required for a condition to be classified as a disease... but a mental dysfunction with insight seems to be more clearly a disease than one without insight.

And hasn't studies shown that CBT/ERP is just as good as, if not better than, meds at treating OCD and producing similar neurological results and lower relapse rates?

Hi, if you say so I believe it... whether a condition is best treated pharmacologically or with psychotherapy isn't really relevant to whether or not it is classified as an illness. I'm personally more interested in a pharmacologic approach and I hope to see advances on that front...

On disease classification: There's a substantial number of Deaf individuals who do not believe deafness is a disability

Hi, yeah... this is a point that hasn't been brought up because I don't think it helps anyone's argument...

In general, a disease is defined as a harmful dysfunction, with the term "harmful" indicating a normative component, and the term "dysfunction" indicating a biological component. One thing that nobody's really sure about is whose normative judgment we're supposed to use...

I think that the key here, at least as far as medicine is concerned, is that sick people need treatment and not-sick people don't need treatment. So if a deaf person makes a normative judgment that being deaf isn't "bad", then they won't be treated... So they can say that they're not sick if they want, it won't cause any contradictions as far as treatment is concerned.

The main problem is that some mental diseases might have, as a symptom, that the patient doesn't think it's bad... or they might not accept that they have a condition. I think that this case raises some problems, but I'm not really sure how to resolve them.
 
I guess what I'm wondering is what would change if we stopped thinking of these things as disorders. Would we just call them sub-optimal functioning? Should we stop treating people with ADHD, kick them to the curb, and tell society we need to stop expecting people to pay attention to what they are doing and not start fights?

Even if I understand the point, I'm still failing to see how any good could come of this, even if it is true (and I don't believe it is).

Hi, I take the point to be entirely political. People who say these kinds of things want to label psychiatry as some form of social control rather than a legitimate field of medicine.

Also, if schizophrenia is not an illness, then I take that it must be a form of personal weakness, which serves to further stigmatize the mentally ill.

This kind of anti-psychiatry stuff, as far as I can tell, is only ever destructive to the mentally ill and those who treat the mentally ill, but arguing against it is really hard, and tiring...

The reason that it really frustrates me is because I can't really believe that anybody who has experience with schizophrenia can ever believe that it's status as an "illness" is purely a social construct... Who can believe that?
 
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