- Joined
- Oct 9, 2003
- Messages
- 10
- Reaction score
- 0
I figure most of you have taken calc and can give me a heads up on this problem.
Show that if p is greater than one and q is less than infinity and (1/p) + (1/q) = 1 and a and b are greater than zero then ab must be less than or equal to ((a^p)/p) + ((b^q)/q)
Some one suggested using the arithmetic-geometric mean inequality to prove it, but I am not really sure how to apply this. I am very inexperienced with calculus and coculd use some advice.
Thanks
Show that if p is greater than one and q is less than infinity and (1/p) + (1/q) = 1 and a and b are greater than zero then ab must be less than or equal to ((a^p)/p) + ((b^q)/q)
Some one suggested using the arithmetic-geometric mean inequality to prove it, but I am not really sure how to apply this. I am very inexperienced with calculus and coculd use some advice.
Thanks