According to someone I know, if a question asks about uniformly accelerated motion, the acceleration can be zero. Is this true? I guess I can see how it could be, but... :-/
can an accel of 0 be considered uniformly accelerated motion?
- Thread starter youngrace
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I don't think so. Because if it starts at rest, then it'll stay at rest which is not "uniform accelerated motion".
From the passages i've completed, I can also say that a = 0 wouldn't make much sense. All it means is that it's some non-zero number and it stays there.
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I would vote yes. Uniform acceleration means constant acceleration, and zero is a constant.
As for the 'motion' angle, all motion is a matter of perspective. When you are in your car, is your passenger moving at v=0 or v=60mph? Yes.
Most importantly, all of the kinematics equations work just fine by plugging in a=0.
As for the 'motion' angle, all motion is a matter of perspective. When you are in your car, is your passenger moving at v=0 or v=60mph? Yes.
Most importantly, all of the kinematics equations work just fine by plugging in a=0.
