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Firstly, thank-you for reading this! I'm not a student doctor, but I don't know where else to turn.
I'm a patient who has been diagnosed with an atypical presentation of possibly congenital, but more likely age related cataracts, and I was wondering if anyone could shed light on the matter. The difficulty is this: the density of the occlusions would suggest an age related condition, however the definition of shape and symmetry (they are bilateral and absolutely identical) would suggest a congenital condition. Most importantly I am ONLY 29. They have definitely developed over the last two to three years and were not present at birth. None of the four optometrists I've seen so far have ever seen anything like it in their careers, even a cataract expert that I sought out.
I am getting frustrated with the differing second third and fourth opinions that I have been receiving. My family doctor won't refer me to the consultant ophthalmologist until the reduction in eyesight is disabling. In the UK it's the GP's that are the gatekeepers of all other kinds of treatment, and they don't seem to be taking me seriously, neither do they have the time to reassure a patient with non-conforming symptoms. All of the online resources to do with sight do not allow for any features that are outside the accepted parameters of either congenital OR age related cataracts. I guess I'm kind of an oddity. I'm worried that there is an ongoing medical condition behind the symptoms that will make it worse if not treated.
My question is, has anyone ever heard of these exact symptoms, and if so, to what causes can they be attributed? It has been suggested that it may be the result of either my serious childhood measles infection, or a high voltage electrocution to the head ten years ago (4000 volts and low amps).
Thanks again to anyone who takes the time to read this!
I'm a patient who has been diagnosed with an atypical presentation of possibly congenital, but more likely age related cataracts, and I was wondering if anyone could shed light on the matter. The difficulty is this: the density of the occlusions would suggest an age related condition, however the definition of shape and symmetry (they are bilateral and absolutely identical) would suggest a congenital condition. Most importantly I am ONLY 29. They have definitely developed over the last two to three years and were not present at birth. None of the four optometrists I've seen so far have ever seen anything like it in their careers, even a cataract expert that I sought out.
I am getting frustrated with the differing second third and fourth opinions that I have been receiving. My family doctor won't refer me to the consultant ophthalmologist until the reduction in eyesight is disabling. In the UK it's the GP's that are the gatekeepers of all other kinds of treatment, and they don't seem to be taking me seriously, neither do they have the time to reassure a patient with non-conforming symptoms. All of the online resources to do with sight do not allow for any features that are outside the accepted parameters of either congenital OR age related cataracts. I guess I'm kind of an oddity. I'm worried that there is an ongoing medical condition behind the symptoms that will make it worse if not treated.
My question is, has anyone ever heard of these exact symptoms, and if so, to what causes can they be attributed? It has been suggested that it may be the result of either my serious childhood measles infection, or a high voltage electrocution to the head ten years ago (4000 volts and low amps).
Thanks again to anyone who takes the time to read this!