- Joined
- Jul 9, 2011
- Messages
- 313
- Reaction score
- 1
I am confused about a "coefficent of friction on an Incline" problem in BR. The problem asked if a woman is sliding down a hill, does her mass have any affect on her acceleration? The math shows that Mass and gravity have no effect on an object's acceleration down the slope.
And then they take it even further with
Whatttt?
I am absolutely confused here.
1.) why did they make uN equal to the (mgsinQ) force down a hill? They did NoT set a precedent saying that she was Not experiencing acceleration.
2.) so.... when an object slides down a hill without acceleration change, does this mean that the u ALWAYS equals (sinQ)/(cosQ)?
u (mgcosQ)=(mgsinQ)
u (cosQ)= (sinQ)
And then they take it even further with
u= (sinQ)/(cosQ)
Whatttt?
I am absolutely confused here.
1.) why did they make uN equal to the (mgsinQ) force down a hill? They did NoT set a precedent saying that she was Not experiencing acceleration.
2.) so.... when an object slides down a hill without acceleration change, does this mean that the u ALWAYS equals (sinQ)/(cosQ)?